Answer:
There is a 22.42% probability that a sample in this size has 2 imperfections.
Step-by-step explanation:
For each chip, there are only two possible outcomes. Either they are imperfect, or they are not.
This means that we can solve this problem using binomial distribution probability concepts.
Binomial probability distribution
The binomial probability is the probability of exactly x successes on n repeated trials, and X can only have two outcomes.
In which is the number of different combinatios of x objects from a set of n elements, given by the following formula.
And is the probability of X happening.
In this problem
A success is a chip being imperfect. Suppose the average number of imperfections per 1000 sim chips is 3. So .
What is the probability that a sample this size (1000 chips) has 2 imperfections?
The sample has 1000 chips, wo
We want P(X = 2).
There is a 22.42% probability that a sample in this size has 2 imperfections.