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Kazeer [188]
2 years ago
6

Walt received a package that is 2 1/3 inches long, 6 3/4 inches high, and 8 1/2 inches wide. What is the surface area of the pac

kage?
Mathematics
2 answers:
grin007 [14]2 years ago
5 0
Add whole numbers: 2 + 6 + 8 = 16
Add fractions:

= 1/3 + 3/4 + 1/2

= (8 + 18 + 12) ÷ 24

= 38/24 or 1 14/24 or simplified to 1 7/12

Total surface area = 16 + 1 7/12 or 17 7/12


Sophie [7]2 years ago
5 0

Answer : The surface area of the package is, 185.9inch^3

Step-by-step explanation :

The given package is in cuboid shape. Now we have to calculate the surface area of the package by using volume of cuboid.

Formula used for volume of cuboid is:

V=2(lb+bh+hl)

where,

V = volume of package

l = length of package = 2\frac{1}{3}inch=\frac{7}{3}inch

b = width of package = 8\frac{1}{2}inch=\frac{17}{2}inch

h = height of package = 6\frac{3}{4}inch=\frac{27}{4}inch

Now put all the given values in the above formula, we get:

V=2\times [(\frac{7}{3}\times \frac{17}{2})+(\frac{17}{2}\times \frac{27}{4})+(\frac{27}{4}\times \frac{7}{3})]

V=2\times [\frac{119}{6}+\frac{459}{8}+\frac{63}{4}]

V=185.9inch^3

Therefore, the surface area of the package is, 185.9inch^3

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The revenue function for a dog food company is modelled by the function R(d) = - 40d^2 + 200d, where d is the price for a can of
marysya [2.9K]

Answer:

The breakeven prices are d_1=4.225 and d_2=1.775.

Step-by-step explanation:

The break even point represents the point in which the profit is zero. In other words, where the revenue equals the cost.

We have functions that describe both the revenue and the cost. The brackeven price is such that R(d)=C(d):

R(d) = - 40d^2 + 200d\\\\C(d) = 300-40d\\\\\\R(d)=C(d)\\\\-40d^2+200d=300-40d\\\\-40d^2+240d-300=0\\\\\\d=\dfrac{-240\pm\sqrt{240^2-4(-40)(-300)}}{2(-40)}\\\\\\d=\dfrac{-240\pm\sqrt{57600-48000}}{-80}\\\\\\d=\dfrac{-240\pm98}{-80}=3\pm1.225\\\\\\d_1=3+1.225=4.225\\\\d_2=3-1.225=1.775

4 0
2 years ago
According to a 2013 study by the Pew Research Center, 15% of adults in the United States do not use the Internet (Pew Research C
Pavel [41]

Answer:

a) For this case we can use the binomial model since we assume independent events and the same probability for each trial is the same p =0.15

b) P(X=0)=(10C0)(0.15)^0 (1-0.15)^{10-0}=0.1969

c) P(X=3)=(10C3)(0.15)^3 (1-0.15)^{10-3}=0.1298

d) P(X \geq 1)= 1-P(X

And using the result from part a we got:

P(X \geq 1)= 1-P(X

Step-by-step explanation:

Previous concepts

The binomial distribution is a "DISCRETE probability distribution that summarizes the probability that a value will take one of two independent values under a given set of parameters. The assumptions for the binomial distribution are that there is only one outcome for each trial, each trial has the same probability of success, and each trial is mutually exclusive, or independent of each other".  

Let X the random variable of interest, on this case we now that:  

X \sim Binom(n p)  

The probability mass function for the Binomial distribution is given as:  

P(X)=(nCx)(p)^x (1-p)^{n-x}  

Where (nCx) means combinatory and it's given by this formula:  

nCx=\frac{n!}{(n-x)! x!}  

Solution to the problem

Part a

For this case we can use the binomial model since we assume independent events and the same probability for each trial is the same p =0.15

Part b

For this case we want this probability:

P(X=0)

And replacing we got:

P(X=0)=(10C0)(0.15)^0 (1-0.15)^{10-0}=0.1969

Part c

For this case we want this probability:

P(X=3)

And replacing we got:

P(X=3)=(10C3)(0.15)^3 (1-0.15)^{10-3}=0.1298

Part d

For this cae we want thi probability:

P(X \geq 1)

And we can use the complment rule and we got:

P(X \geq 1)= 1-P(X

And using the result from part a we got:

P(X \geq 1)= 1-P(X

4 0
2 years ago
write a number from 20 to 50 that has both tens and ones. use pictures and words to show the tens and ones.
slavikrds [6]
The answer is 35 because it in beetween 20 and 50

5 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
identify the number that does not belong with the other three. explain your reasoning. 50.1 repeating, -50/2, -50.1, square root
jeka57 [31]

Answer: square root 50 that does not belong

Step-by-step explanation:

4 0
2 years ago
In USA Today (Sept. 5, 1996), the results of a survey involving the use of sleepwear while traveling were listed as follows: Mal
Wewaii [24]

Answers:

a) 0.018.

b) 0.614.

c) 0.166.

d) 0.479

Explanations:

1) Table

----------------------Male ----------- Female ---------- Total

Underwear ----- 0.220 ---------- 0.024 ---------- 0.244

Nightgown ----- 0.002 ---------- 0.180 ------------ 0.182

Nothing --------- 0.160 ----------- 0.018 ------------ 0.178

Pajamas --------- 0.102 ---------- 0.073 ----------- 0.175

T-shirt ------------ 0.046 --------- 0.088 ------------ 0.134

Other --------------0.084 --------- 0.003 ------------ 0.087

2) Check that it is a table of relative frequencies:

total = 0.244 + 0.182 + 0.178 + 0.175 + 0.134 + 0.087 = 1 ⇒ indeed this is a table of relative frequencies.

That means that each data is a probabiilty.

3) Soluitions:

(a) What is the probability that a traveler is a female who sleeps in the nothing?

relative frequency of females that use nothing = 0.018

(b) What is the probability that a traveler is male?

Probability that a traveler is a male = relative frequency of males = 0.220 + 0.002 + 0.160 + 0.102 + 0.046 + 0.084 = 0.614

(c) Assuming the traveler is male, what is the probability that he sleeps in pajamas?

It is the relative frequency of the males that sleep in pajamas divided by the relative frequency of males = 0.102 / 0.614 = 0.166

(d) What is the probability that a traveler is male if the traveler sleeps in pajamas or a T-shirt?

It is the relative frequency of males that sleep in pajamas plus that of the males that sleep in T-shirt, divided the total relative frequency of travelers that sleep in pajamas or T-shirt

i) relative frequency of males that sleeps in pajamas plus that of the males that sleeps in T-shirt = 0.102 + 0.046 = 0.148

ii) relative frequency of travelers that sleep in pajamas or T-shirt = 0.102 + 0.046 + 0.073 + 0.088 = 0.309

iii) quotient = 0.148 / 0.309 = 0.479

5 0
2 years ago
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