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VashaNatasha [74]
2 years ago
8

When the displacement of a mass on a spring is 1/2a the half of the amplitude, what fraction of the mechanical energy is kinetic

energy?
Physics
2 answers:
Serhud [2]2 years ago
6 0

Answer:

KE : TE = 3 : 4

Explanation:

As we know that the total mechanical energy of the object which is executing SHM is given by

E_{total} = \frac{1}{2}KA^2

here we know that

A = amplitude of SHM

K = spring constant

now we know that total mechanical energy of the spring is always constant so here we can say

kinetic energy + Potential energy = total mechanical energy

we know that potential energy of the spring at any given distance is

U = \frac{1}{2}kx^2

at given position x = A/2

U = \frac{1}{2}K(\frac{A}{2})^2 = \frac{1}{8}KA^2

now we have

KE + \frac{1}{8}KA^2 = \frac{1}{2}KA^2

KE = \frac{3}{8}KA^2

now ratio of kinetic energy and total mechanical energy will be given as

KE : TE = \frac{3}{8}KA^2 : \frac{1}{2}KA^2

KE : TE = 3 : 4

USPshnik [31]2 years ago
5 0
Total energy is a spring:
E = \frac{1}{2} kx^2 +  \frac{1}{2} mv^2 =  \frac{1}{2} ka^2

At x = 0.5a:
\frac{1}{2} k \frac{a}{2} ^2 +  \frac{1}{2} mv^2 =  \frac{1}{2} ka^2 \\  \frac{1}{2} mv^2 =  \frac{1}{2} ka^2 -  \frac{1}{8} ka^2 =  \frac{3}{8} ka^2

The ration:
\frac{ \frac{3}{8}ka^2 }{ \frac{1}{2} ka^2} =  \frac{3}{4}
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lidiya [134]

Answer:

EMF = 316 Volts

Explanation:

As we know that magnetic flux through the coil is given by

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now by Faraday law we know that rate of change in magnetic flux is equal to the EMF induced in the coil

so we have

-\frac{d\phi}{dt} = EMF

EMF = -NA\frac{dB}{dt}

now we have

B = 50 sin(10\pi t)

A = \pi r^2 = \pi(0.04)^2 = 5.03 \times 10^{-3} m^2

now we have

EMF = -(40)(5.03 \times 10^{-3})\frac{d(50 sin(10\pi t))}{dt}

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now at t = 0.10 s

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3 0
2 years ago
You testify as an expert witness in a case involving an accident in which car A slid into the rear of car B, which was stopped a
bekas [8.4K]

Answer:

A) 12.08 m/s

B) 19.39 m/s

Explanation:

A) Down the hill, we will apply Newton’s second law of motion in the downward direction to get:

mg(sinθ) – F_k = ma

Where; F_k is frictional force due to kinetic friction given by the formula;

F_k = (μ_k) × F_n

F_n is normal force given by mgcosθ

Thus;

F_k = μ_k(mg cosθ)

We now have;

mg(sinθ) – μ_k(mg cosθ) = ma

Dividing through by m to get;

g(sinθ) – μ_k(g cosθ) = a

a = 9.8(sin 12.03) - 0.6(9.8 × cos 12.03)

a = -3.71 m/s²

We are told that distance d = 24.0 m and v_o = 18 m/s

Using newton's 3rd equation of motion, we have;

v = √(v_o² + 2ad)

v = √(18² + (2 × -3.71 × 24))

v = 12.08 m/s

B) Now, μ_k = 0.10

Thus;

a = 9.8(sin 12.03) - 0.1(9.8 × cos 12.03)

a = 1.08 m/s²

Using newton's 3rd equation of motion, we have;

v = √(v_o + 2ad)

v = √(18² + (2 × 1.08 × 24))

v = 19.39 m/s

6 0
2 years ago
As a person pushes a box across a floor, the energy from the person’s moving arm is transferred to the box, and the box and the
san4es73 [151]

Answer:

conserved

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2 years ago
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2 years ago
A physics department has a Foucault pendulum, a long-period pendulum suspended from the ceiling. The pendulum has an electric ci
antoniya [11.8K]

Answer:

t=37 mins -> 2220sec

We want "T" which is the pendulum time constant

Using this equation

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Take ln of both sides to get ride of Ae

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Now rearrange to = T

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8 0
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