Answer:
a) v₃ = 19.54 km, b) 70.2º north-west
Explanation:
This is a vector exercise, the best way to solve it is finding the components of each vector and doing the addition
vector 1 moves 26 km northeast
let's use trigonometry to find its components
cos 45 = x₁ / V₁
sin 45 = y₁ / V₁
x₁ = v₁ cos 45
y₁ = v₁ sin 45
x₁ = 26 cos 45
y₁ = 26 sin 45
x₁ = 18.38 km
y₁ = 18.38 km
Vector 2 moves 45 km north
y₂ = 45 km
Unknown 3 vector
x3 =?
y3 =?
Vector Resulting 70 km north of the starting point
R_y = 70 km
we make the sum on each axis
X axis
Rₓ = x₁ + x₃
x₃ = Rₓ -x₁
x₃ = 0 - 18.38
x₃ = -18.38 km
Y Axis
R_y = y₁ + y₂ + y₃
y₃ = R_y - y₁ -y₂
y₃ = 70 -18.38 - 45
y₃ = 6.62 km
the vector of the third leg of the journey is
v₃ = (-18.38 i ^ +6.62 j^ ) km
let's use the Pythagorean theorem to find the length
v₃ = √ (18.38² + 6.62²)
v₃ = 19.54 km
to find the angle let's use trigonometry
tan θ = y₃ / x₃
θ = tan⁻¹ (y₃ / x₃)
θ = tan⁻¹ (6.62 / (- 18.38))
θ = -19.8º
with respect to the x axis, if we measure this angle from the positive side of the x axis it is
θ’= 180 -19.8
θ’= 160.19º
I mean the address is
θ’’ = 90-19.8
θ = 70.2º
70.2º north-west
Inversely proportional to its frequency. If electromagnetic radiation A has a lower frequency than electromagnetic B, then compared to B, the wavelength of A is...? - equal - shorter - longer - exactly half the length of
They would be likely to be underweight. This is because the role of villi is to increase absorption of soluble molecules, they do this by increasing surface area for absorption to occur across.
If the person has less villi than normal in their small intestine, then the surface area will not be as large meaning there is less area for absorption to occur across so less soluble molecules will be absorbed.
Answer: 80m
Explanation:
Distance of balloon to the ground is 3150m
Let the distance of Menin's pocket to the ground be x
Let the distance between Menin's pocket to the balloon be y
Hence, x=3150-y------1
Using the equation of motion,
V^2= U^s + 2gs--------2
U= initial speed is 0m/s
g is replaced with a since the acceleration is under gravity (g) and not straight line (a), hence g is taken as 10m/s
40m/s is contant since U (the coin is at rest is 0) hence V =40m/s
Slotting our values into equation 2
40^2= 0^2 + 2 * 10* (3150-y)
1600 = 0 + 63000 - 20y
1600 - 63000 = - 20y
-61400 = - 20y minus cancel out minus on both sides of the equation
61400 = 20y
Hence y = 61400/20
3070m
Hence, recall equation 1
x = 3150 - 3070
80m
I hope this solve the problem.
Answer:
Explanation:
Calculate the volume of the lead

Now calculate the bouyant force acting on the lead


This force will act in upward direction
Gravitational force on the lead due to its mass will act in downward direction
Hence the difference of this two force

If V is the volume submerged in the water then bouyant force on the bobber is

Equate bouyant force with the tension and gravitational force

Now Total volume of bobble is

=