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DIA [1.3K]
2 years ago
6

The energy difference between the 5d and the 6s sublevels in gold accounts for its color. If this energy difference is about 2.7

eV (electron volt; 1 eV = 1.602 × 10−19 J), calculate the wavelength of light absorbed in the transition of an electron from the 5d subshell to the 6s subshell. Round the answer to the correct number of significant figures.
Physics
1 answer:
Anastaziya [24]2 years ago
8 0

Answer:

The wavelength of light absorbed in the transition is 459 nm.

Explanation:

Energy difference between 5-d and the 6-s sub-levels in gold = ΔE

\Delta E=2.7 eV=2.7 eV\times 1.602\times 10^{-19} J=4.3254\times 10^{-19} J

Let the wavelength of light absorbed in the transition 5-d to 6-s be \lambda

The relation between energy and wavelength is given by:

E=\frac{h\times c}{\lambda}

where,

E = energy of photon of the light

h = Planck's constant = 6.63\times 10^{-34}Js

c = speed of light = 3\times 10^8m/s

\lambda = wavelength of the photon

4.3254\times 10^{-19} J=\frac{6.63\times 10^{-34}Js\times 3\times 10^8 m/s}{\Lambda }

\Lambda =4.59\times 10^{-7} m = 459 nm

1nm = 10^{-9 } nm

The wavelength of light absorbed in the transition is 459 nm.

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Sveta_85 [38]

Answer:

(2) −1 e

Explanation:

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Up, charm and top quarks have +\frac{2}{3} e charge where as down, strange and bottom quarks have -\frac{1}{3}e charge.

The antiparticle of up quark is antiup quark and has charge -\frac{2}{3}e charge.

The antiparticle of down quark is antidown quark and has charge +\frac{1}{3}e charge.

An antibaryon is composed of two anti-up quark and one anti-down quark.

Net charge of the anti-baryon is:

2\times (-\frac{2}{3} e)+1\times (+\frac{1}{3})e=-1e

Thus, antibaryon has -1e charge.

5 0
2 years ago
Planetary orbits... are spaced more closely together as they get further from the Sun. are evenly spaced throughout the solar sy
BaLLatris [955]

Answer:

E) are almost circular, with low eccentricities.

Explanation:

Kepler's laws establish that:

All the planets revolve around the Sun in an elliptic orbit, with the Sun in one of the focus (Kepler's first law).

A planet describes equal areas in equal times (Kepler's second law).

The square of the period of a planet will be proportional to the cube of the semi-major axis of its orbit (Kepler's third law).

T^{2} = a^{3}

Where T is the period of revolution and a is the semi-major axis.

Planets orbit around the Sun in an ellipse with the Sun in one of the focus. Because of that, it is not possible to the Sun to be at the center of the orbit, as the statement on option "C" says.

However, those orbits have low eccentricities (remember that an eccentricity = 0 corresponds to a circle)

In some moments of their orbit, planets will be closer to the Sun (known as perihelion). According with Kepler's second law to complete the same area in the same time, they have to speed up at their perihelion and slow down at their aphelion (point farther from the Sun in their orbit).

Therefore, option A and B can not be true.

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2 years ago
What is the torque τb about axis b due to the force f⃗ ? (b is the point at cartesian coordinates (0,b), located a distance b fr
yKpoI14uk [10]
Check the attached file for the solution.

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2 years ago
Calculate the buoyant force in air on a kilogram of titanium (whose density is about 4.5 grams per cubic centimeter). compare wi
aleksklad [387]
1) The buoyant force acting on an object immersed in a fluid is:
B=d_f V_d g
where d_f is the density of the fluid, V_d is the volume of displaced fluid, and g=9.81~m/s^2 is the gravitational acceleration.

2) We must calculate the volume of displaced fluid. Since the titanium object is completely immersed in the fluid (air), this volume corresponds to the volume of 1 Kg of titanium, whose density is d=4.5~g/cm^3 = 4.5\cdot10^3~Kg/m^3. Using the relationship between density, volume and mass, we find
V_d= \frac{m}{d}= \frac{1~Kg}{4.5\cdot10^3Kg/m^3}=2.22\cdot10^{-4}~m^3

3) Now we can recall the formula written at step 1) and calculate the buoyant force. The air density is d_f = 1~Kg/m^3, so we have
B=d_f V_d g=1~Kg/m^3 \cdot 2.22\cdot10^{-4}~m^3 \cdot 9.81~m/s^2=2.22\cdot10^{-3}~N

4) The weight of 1 Kg of titanium is instead:
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7 0
1 year ago
A metal ball with diameter of a half a centimeter and hanging from an insulating thread is charged up with 1010 excess electrons
liraira [26]

When the metals touch together, half the charge of the charged metal flows to the other because the electrons all repel each other. Therefore this also means that each metal ball contains the same amount of electrons. Each ball has 5^10 electrons, this is equivalent to a total charge of:

Q1 = Q2 = (1.602 * 10^-19 coulombs / electron) 5^10 electrons = Q

Q = 1.564 * 10^-12 C

 

Now using the Coulombs law to find for the electric force:

F = k q1 q2 / r^2 = k (Q)^2 / r^2

where k is a contant = 9 * 10^9 N m^2 / C^2

r = the distance of the two metals = 0.2 m

So,

F = (9 * 10^9 N m^2 / C^2) (1.564 * 10^-12 C)^2 / (0.2 m)^2

F = 5.51 * 10^-13 N

 

Since the two metals repel therefore they are the one which exerts the force hence the magnitude must be negative:

<span>F = - 5.51 * 10^-13 N</span>

7 0
2 years ago
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