Answer: machine's efficiency = 82.2%
Explanation:
Efficiency of a machine is the capability of a machine to convert input to output without waste.
It can be expressed as
Efficiency = output/ input × 100%
Output = 7,023N
Imput = 8,542N
Efficiency = 7,023N/8,542N × 100%
Efficiency = 82.2%
consider the right direction as positive and left direction as negative.
M = mass of the ball = 5 kg
m = mass of stone = 1.50 kg
= initial velocity of the ball before collision = 0 m/s
= initial velocity of the stone before collision = 12 m/s
= final velocity of the ball after collision = ?
= final velocity of the stone after collision = - 8.50 m/s
using conservation of momentum
M
+ m
= M
+ m
(5) (0) + (1.5) (12) = 5
+ (1.50) (- 8.50)
= 6.15 m/s
h = height gained by the ball
using conservation of energy
Potential energy gained by ball at Top = kinetic energy at the bottom
Mgh = (0.5) M
(9.8) h = (0.5) (6.15)²
h = 1.93 m
Magnetic flux can be calculated by the product of the magnetic field and the area that is perpendicular to the field that it penetrates. It has units of Weber or Tesla-m^2. For the first question, when there is no current in the coil, the flux would be:
ΦB = BA
A = πr^2
A = π(.1 m)^2
A = π/100 m^2
ΦB = 2.60x10^-3 T (π/100 m^2 ) ΦB = 8.17x10^-5 T-m^2 or Wb (This is only for one loop of the coil)
The inductance on the coil given the current flows in a certain direction can be calculated by the product of the total number of turns in the coil and the flux of one loop over the current passing through. We do as follows:
L = N (ΦB ) / I
L = 30 (8.17x10^-5 T-m^2) / 3.80 = 6.44x10^-4 mH
Answer:i=300 mA
Explanation:
Given
inductance(L)=40 mH
Resistor(R)=
Voltage(V)=15 V
Time constant(
)=

current 

Current as a function of time is given by

i= 299.95 mA
Answer:
A
Explanation:
v = change of X / change of T
v = 200/19.3