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Kobotan [32]
2 years ago
13

A positively-charged piece of plastic exerts an attractive force on an electrically neutral piece of paper. This is because: 1.

electrons are less massive than atomic nuclei 2. the electric force between charged particles decreases with increasing distance 3. an atomic nucleus occupies only a small part of the volume of an atom 4. a typical atom has many electrons but only one nucleus
Physics
1 answer:
Furkat [3]2 years ago
3 0

Answer:

1 ) Electrons are less massive than than atomic nuclei.

Explanation:

A positively charged body tends to attract negatively charged particle and repel positively charged particle. Neutral body consists of atoms which contain both positively charged particles ( electrons ) and negatively charged particles ( protons ). Electrons are small and light in weight . Both electrons and protons experience equal and opposite force by an external charged body but shift in electron is more because of their being comparatively lighter. So the body gets polarized due to uneven distribution of charge. This results into body getting attracted through the process of induction.

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pitot tube on an airplane flying at a standard sea level reads 1.07 x 105 N/m2. What is the velocity of the airplane?
Allushta [10]

Answer:

V_infinty=98.772 m/s

Explanation:

complete question is:

The following problem assume an inviscid, incompressible flow. Also, standard sea level density and pressure are 1.23kg/m3(0.002377slug/ft3) and 1.01imes105N/m2(2116lb/ft2), respectively. A Pitot tube on an airplane flying at standard sea level reads 1.07imes105N/m2. What is the velocity of the airplane?

<u>solution:</u>

<u>given:</u>

<em>p_o=1.07*10^5 N/m^2</em>

<em>ρ_infinity=1.23 kg/m^2</em>

<em>p_infinity=1.01*10^5 N/m^2</em>

p_o=p_infinity+(1/2)*(ρ_infinity)*V_infinty^2

V_infinty^2=9756.097

V_infinty=98.772 m/s

8 0
2 years ago
Let’s consider tunneling of an electron outside of a potential well. The formula for the transmission coefficient is T \simeq e^
ioda

Answer:

L' = 1.231L

Explanation:

The transmission coefficient, in a tunneling process in which an electron is involved, can be approximated to the following expression:

T \approx e^{-2CL}

L: width of the barrier

C: constant that includes particle energy and barrier height

You have that the transmission coefficient for a specific value of L is T = 0.050. Furthermore, you have that for a new value of the width of the barrier, let's say, L', the value of the transmission coefficient is T'=0.025.

To find the new value of the L' you can write down both situation for T and T', as in the following:

0.050=e^{-2CL}\ \ \ \ (1)\\\\0.025=e^{-2CL'}\ \ \ \ (2)

Next, by properties of logarithms, you can apply Ln to both equations (1) and (2):

ln(0.050)=ln(e^{-2CL})=-2CL\ \ \ \ (3)\\\\ln(0.025)=ln(e^{-2CL'})=-2CL'\ \ \ \ (4)

Next, you divide the equation (3) into (4), and finally, you solve for L':

\frac{ln(0.050)}{ln(0.025)}=\frac{-2CL}{-2CL'}=\frac{L}{L'}\\\\0.812=\frac{L}{L'}\\\\L'=\frac{L}{0.812}=1.231L

hence, when the trnasmission coeeficient has changes to a values of 0.025, the new width of the barrier L' is 1.231 L

8 0
2 years ago
An ac source of period T and maximum voltage V is connected to a single unknown ideal element that is either a resistor, and ind
Black_prince [1.1K]
The answer is d.a capacitor
8 0
2 years ago
A man of mass 80kg stands next to a stationary ball of mass 4kg on a frictionless surface. He kicks the ball forward along the s
scZoUnD [109]
Momentum is conserved.

p = m₁v₁ + m₂v₂ = constant

Momentum before the collision(kick):

p = 80 * 0 + 4 * 0 = 0

Momentum after the collision:
p = 80 * v₁ + 4 * 15 = 0

Solve for v₁.

3 0
2 years ago
The coordinate of a particle in meters is given by x(t)=1 6t- 3.0t , where the time tis in seconds. The
Reika [66]

Complete question:

The coordinate of a particle in meters is given by x(t)=1 6t- 3.0t³ , where the time tis in seconds. The

particle is momentarily at rest at t is:

Select one:

a. 9.3s

b. 1.3s

C. 0.75s

d.5.3s

e. 7.3s

​

Answer:

b. 1.3 s

Explanation:

Given;

position of the particle, x(t)=1 6t- 3.0t³

when the particle is at rest, the velocity is zero.

velocity = dx/dt

dx /dt = 16 - 9t²

16 - 9t² = 0

9t² = 16

t² = 16 /9

t = √(16 / 9)

t = 4/3

t = 1.3 s

Therefore, the particle is momentarily at rest at t = 1.3 s

6 0
2 years ago
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