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maxonik [38]
2 years ago
15

A particular material has an index of refraction of 1.25. What percent of the speed of light in a vacuum is the speed of light i

n the material?
Physics
2 answers:
Len [333]2 years ago
7 0

Answer:

The percentage of speed of light in vacuum to the speed of light in the said material is 80%

Explanation:

The common values of refractive index are between 1 and 2 since nothing can travel faster than the speed of light, therefore, no material has a refractive index lower than 1.

According to the formula n=\frac{c}{v}

where n is the index of refraction

c is the speed of light in vacuum

and v is the speed of light in the material, it can be seen that n and v are inversely proportional which means greater the refractive index lower is the speed  of light.

Since we know that speed of light in vacuum is 300,000 km/s using the formula we get,

v=\frac{c}n}

v=\frac{300000}{1.25}=240,000  km/s

for finding percentage,

=\frac{240000}{300000}*100 = 80 %

beks73 [17]2 years ago
3 0

Answer:

80% (Eighty percent)

Explanation:

The material has a refractive index (n) of 1.25

Speed of light in a vacuum (c) is 2.99792458 x 10⁸  m/s

We can find the speed of light in the material (v) using the relationship

n = c/v, similarly

v = c/n

therefore v = 2.99792458 x 10⁸  m/s ÷ (1.25) = 239 833 966 m/s

v = 239 833 966 m/s

Therefore the percentage of the speed of light in a vacuum that is the speed of light in the material can be calculated as

(v/c) × 100 = (1/n) × 100 = (1/1.25) × 100 = 0.8 × 100 = 80%

Therefore speed of light in the material (v) is eighty percent of the speed of light in the vacuum (c)

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Based on the direction of propagation compared to direction of vibration, waves are classified into:
1- Transverse waves: The direction of propagation of the wave is perpendicular to the direction of vibration of the medium particles.
2- Longitudinal waves: The direction of propagation of the wave is the same as the direction of vibration of the medium particles.

For the question we have here, since the direction of the wave is the same as the direction of vibration of particles, therefore, this wave is a longitudinal wave
6 0
2 years ago
A 1000 kg roller coaster begins on a 10 m tall hill with an initial velocity of 6m/s and travels down before traveling up a seco
balu736 [363]

Answer:

10.6 meters.

Explanation:

We use the law of conservation of energy, which says that the total energy of the system must remain constant, namely:

\frac{1}{2}mv_i^2+mgh_i-1700j=\frac{1}{2}mv_f^2+mgh_f

In words this means that the initial kinetic energy of the roller coaster plus its gravitational potential energy minus the energy lost due to friction (1700j) must equal to the final kinetic energy at top of the second hill.

Now let us put in the numerical values in the above equation.

m=100kg

h_i=10m

v_i= 6m/s

v_f=4,6m/s

and solve for h_f

h_f= \frac{\frac{1}{2}mv_i^2+mgh_i-1700j-\frac{1}{2}mv_f^2}{mg} =\boxed{ 10.6\:meters}

Notice that this height is greater than the initial height the roller coaster started with because the initial kinetic energy it had.

6 0
2 years ago
A steel tank of weight 600 lb is to be accelerated straight upward at a rate of 1.5 ft/sec2. Knowing the magnitude of the force
VikaD [51]

Answer:

a) the values of the angle α is 45.5°

b) the required magnitude of the vertical force, F is 41 lb

Explanation:

Applying the free equilibrium equation along x-direction

from the diagram

we say

∑Fₓ = 0

Pcosα - 425cos30° = 0

525cosα - 368.06 = 0

cosα = 368.06/525

cosα = 0.701

α = cos⁻¹ (0.701)

α = 45.5°

Also Applying the force equation of motion along y-direction

∑Fₓ = ma

Psinα + F + 425sin30° - 600 = (600/32.2)(1.5)

525sin45.5° + F + 212.5 - 600 = 27.95

374.46 + F + 212.5 - 600 = 27.95

F - 13.04 = 27.95

F = 27.95 + 13.04

F = 40.99 ≈ 41 lb

8 0
2 years ago
In a demonstration, a 4.00 cm2 square coil with 10 000 turns enters a larger square region with a uniform 1.50 T magnetic field
Kay [80]

Explanation:

It is given that,

Area of square coil, A=4\ cm^2=0.0004\ m^2

Side of the square, L = 0.02 m

Number of turns, N = 10000

Uniform magnetic field, B = 1.5 T

Speed, v = 100 m/s

An emf is induced in the coil which is given by :

E=NBLv

E=10000\times 1.5\times 0.02\times 100

E = 30000 V

Breakdown voltage of air, V=4000\ V/cm=400000\ V/m

Let d is the gap between the two wires connected to the ends of the coil and still get a spark. So,

Electric field, E'=\dfrac{V}{d}

\dfrac{30000}{d}=400000

d = 0.075 m

Hence, this is the required solution.

6 0
2 years ago
A girl is sledding down a slope that is inclined at 30º with respect to the horizontal. The wind is aiding the motion by providi
OleMash [197]

Answer:

The sled required 9.96 s to travel down the slope.

Explanation:

Please, see the figure for a description of the problem. In red are the x and y-components of the gravity force (Fg). Since the y-component of Fg (Fgy) is of equal magnitude as Fn but in the opposite direction, both forces get canceled.

Then, the forces that cause the acceleration of the sled are the force of the wind (Fw), the friction force (Ff) and the x-component of the gravity force (Fgx).

The sum of all these forces make the sled move. Finding the resulting force will allow us to find the acceleration of the sled and, with it, we can find the time the sled travel.

The magnitude of the friction force is calculated as follows:

Ff = μ · Fn

where :

μ = coefficient of kinetic friction

Fn =  normal force

The normal force has the same magnitude as the y-component of the gravity force:

Fgy = Fg · cos 30º = m · g · cos 30º

Where

m = mass

g = acceleration due to gravity

Then:

Fgy = m · g · cos 30º = 87.7 kg · 9.8 m/s² · cos 30º

Fgy = 744 N

Then, the magnitude of Fn is also 744 N and the friction force will be:

Ff = μ · Fn = 0.151 · 744 N = 112 N

The x-component of Fg, Fgx, is calculated as follows:

Fgx = Fg · sin 30º = m·g · sin 30º = 87.7 kg · 9.8 m/s² · sin 30º = 430 N

The resulting force, Fr, will be the sum of all these forces:

Fw + Fgx - Ff = Fr

(Notice that forces are vectors and the direction of the friction force is opposite to the other forces, then, it has to be of opposite sign).

Fr = 161 N + 430 N - 112 N = 479 N

With this resulting force, we can calculate the acceleration of the sled:

F = m·a

where:

F = force

m = mass of the object

a = acceleration

Then:

F/m = a

a = 479N/87.7 kg = 5.46 m/s²

The equation for the position of an accelerated object moving in a straight line is as follows:

x = x0 + v0 · t + 1/2 · a · t²

where:

x = position at time t

x0 = initial position

v0 = initial velocity

t = time

a = acceleration

Since the sled starts from rest and the origin of the reference system is located where the sled starts sliding, x0 and v0 = 0.

x = 1/2· a ·t²

Let´s find the time at which the position of the sled is 271 m:

271 m = 1/2 · 5.46 m/s² · t²

2 · 271 m / 5.46 m/s² = t²

<u>t = 9.96 s </u>

The sled required almost 10 s to travel down the slope.

8 0
2 years ago
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