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Illusion [34]
1 year ago
11

What is the current through a 25 ohm resistor connected to a 5.0 V power supply? a 0.20 A b 5.0 A c 25 A d 30 A

Physics
1 answer:
zysi [14]1 year ago
8 0
~Formula: Voltage= current• resistance
(V= Ir)
~Using this formula, plug in the numbers from the equation into the formula
~5=25i
~Now you have a one-step equation
~Divide by 25 on both sides and you should get your answer:
~I= 0.2 (which means current is 0.2)
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Three wires meet at a junction. Wire 1 has a current of 0.40 A into the junction. The current of wire 2 is 0.75 A out of the jun
AlexFokin [52]

Answer:

number of electrons = 2.18*10^18 e

Explanation:

In order to calculate the number of electrons that move trough the second wire, you take into account one of the Kirchoff's laws. All the current that goes inside the junction, has to go out the junction.

Then, if you assume that the current of the wire 1 and 3 go inside the junction, then, all this current have to go out trough the second junction:

i_1+i_3=i_2                 (1)

i1 = 0.40 A

i2 = 0.75 A

you solve the equation i3 from the equation (1):

i_3=i_2-i_1=0.75A-0.40A=0.35A

Next, you take into account that 1A = 1C/s = 6.24*10^18

Then, you have:

0.35A=0.35\frac{C}{s}=0.35*\frac{6.24*10^{18}e}{s}=2.18*10^{18}\frac{e}{s}

The number of electrons that trough the wire 3 is 2.18*10^18 e/s

3 0
2 years ago
A fisherman has caught a very large, 5.0kg fish from a dock that is 2.0m above the water. He is using lightweightfishing line th
agasfer [191]

Answer:

t = 2 s

Explanation:

As we know that fish is pulled upwards with uniform maximum acceleration

then we will have

T - mg = ma

here we know that maximum possible acceleration of so that string will not break is given as

T = 54 N

now we have

54 - (5 \times 9.8) = 5 a

a = 1 m/s^2

now for such acceleration we can use kinematics

d = \frac{1}{2}at^2

2 = \frac{1}{2}(1) t^2

t = 2 s

7 0
2 years ago
A 4 cm diameter "bobber" with a mass of 3 grams floats on a pond. A thin, light fishing line is tied to the bottom of the bobber
Tasya [4]

Answer:

Explanation:

Calculate the volume of the lead

V=\frac{m}{d}\\\\=\frac{10g}{11.3g'cm^3}

Now calculate the bouyant force acting on the lead

F_L = Vpg

F_L=(\frac{10g}{11.3g/cm^3} )(1g/cm^3)(9.8m/s^2)\\\\=8.673\times 10^{-3}N

This force will act in upward direction

Gravitational force on the lead due to its mass  will act in downward direction

Hence the difference of this two force

T=mg-F_L\\\\=(10\times10^{-3}kg(9.8m/s^2)-8.673\times 10^{-3}\\\\=8.933\times10^{-3}N

If V is the volume submerged in the water then bouyant force on the bobber is

F_B=V'pg

Equate bouyant force with the tension and gravitational force

F_B=T_mg\\\\V'pg=\frac{(8.933\times10^{-2}N)+mg}{pg} \\\\V'=\frac{(8.933\times10^{-2}N)+mg}{pg}

Now Total volume of bobble is

\frac{V'}{V^B} =\frac{\frac{(8.933\times10^{-2})+Mg}{pg} }{\frac{4}{3} \pi R^3 }\times100\\\\=\frac{\frac{(8.933\times10^{-2})+(3)(9.8)}{(1000)(9.8)} }{\frac{4}{3} \pi (4.0\times10^{-2})^3 }\times100\\\\

=\large\boxed{4.52 \%}

7 0
2 years ago
The rectangular boat shown below has base dimensions 10.0 cm × 8.0 cm. Each cube has a mass of 40 g, and the liquid in the tank
Paladinen [302]

When boat is sunk into the liquid the net buoyancy on the boat is counterbalanced by weight of the boat

So here weight of the boat = Buoyancy force

let say boat is sunk by distance "h"

now we can say

F_b = \rho * V * g

F_b = 1000*0.10 * 0.08 * h * 9.8

now by above force balance equation we can write

m*g = F_b

0.040 * 9.8 = 1000 * 0.10 * 0.08 * h * 9.8

0.040 = 8h

h = 5 * 10^{-3} m

so boat will sunk by total 5 mm distance

8 0
2 years ago
g A particle moves according to a law of motion s = f(t), t ≥ 0, where t is measured in seconds and s in feet. f(t) = 0.01t4 − 0
Margarita [4]

Answer:

Explanation:

If a particle move with time and expressed according to the formula:

f(t) = 0.01t⁴ − 0.03t³

a) Velocity is the change in motion of the particle with respect to time and it is expressed as;

v(t) =\frac{d(f(t))}{dt}

v(t) = 4(0.01)t^{4-1} - 3(0.03)t^{3-1}\\v(t) = 0.04t^3 - 0.09t^2

Hence the velocity of the particle at time t is v(t) = 0.04t^3 - 0.09t^2

b) To calculate the velocity after 1 second, we will substitute t = 1 into the function v(t) in (a) as shown:

v(t) = 0.04t^3 - 0.09t^2\\v(1) = 0.04(1)^3 - 0.09(1)^2\\v(t) = 0.04 - 0.09\\v(t) = -0.05

Hence the velocity after 1second is -0.05

c) The particle is at rest when when the time is zero.

Initially, the body is not moving and the time during this time is 0. Hence the particle is at rest when t = 0second

6 0
1 year ago
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