Answer:
<u>Domain:</u>
The domain of this can be any value between 0 to 565 miles per hour
<u>Range:</u>
The reasonable range can be the distance traveled which can be from 0 to 13,560 miles (no plane travel is longer than 24 hours, we assume).
Step-by-step explanation:
Domain is the input, set of x values for the function.
Range is the output, set of y values for the function.
This isn't a function essentially, but it is given that an Airplane travels at 565 miles per hour.
<em>We can say that the domain will be the speed of the airplane and the range would be the distance it travels.</em>
<em />
<u>Domain:</u>
The domain of this can be any value between 0 to 565 miles per hour
<u>Range:</u>
The reasonable range can be the distance traveled which can be from 0 to (565*24=13,560 miles) 13,560 miles (no plane travel is longer than 24 hours, we assume).
Answer:
- -35/3, -140/3, - 560/3, -2240/3
- 7, -28, 112, - 448
Step-by-step explanation:
<u>The terms are:</u>
<u>Given:</u>
- a₁ = a₂ + 35
- a₃ = a₄ + 560
<u>Use the nth term formula:</u>
- a₂ = a₁r
- a₃ = a₁r²
- a₄ = a₁r³
<u>Substitute:</u>
- a₁ = a₁r + 35 ⇒ a₁(1 - r) = 35
- a₁r² = a₁r³ + 560 ⇒ a₁(1 - r)r² = 560
<u>Divide the second equation by the first:</u>
- r² = 560/35
- r² = 16
- r = √16
- r = ± 4
<u>Use the first equation to find the first term:</u>
- a₁( 1 ± 4) = 35
- 1. a₁ = 35/-3 = -35/3
- 2. a₁ = 35/5 = 7
<u>We have two sequences:</u>
r = 4
- -35/3, -140/3, - 560/3, -2240/3
r = -4
I agree with the author. By using the metric system we know the exact amount of a medicine we took, whether it's in mg or mL. This way every doctor can prescribe the same amount.
If we were using some other units this may not be the case. For example, british and american inch were different until 1950's.
Example: if you go to a surgery and a doctor needs to cut "1 inch from the left part" it may cause a mistake as this unit is different in different countries. But if he needs to cut "2.5 cm from the left part" he knows exactly where to cut.
Another benefit of using metric system is that it is being used in almost every country in the world.
Answer:
I just fart my pants til tehy explde god so ez kid
Step-by-step explanation:
Answer:
The laplace transform is 
Step-by-step explanation:
We will solve this problem by applying the laplace transform properties (their proofs are beyond the scope of this explanation).
Consider first the function f(t) = 1. By definition of the laplace transform, we have

when f(t) = 1 we get

We will apply the following properties: Define L(f) as applying the laplace transform
(this means, multiplying by an exponential corresponds to a shift in the s parameter of the transform of f)
(this is, multypling by
is equivalent to taking the n-th derivative of the transform.
We are given the function
. Since the transform of the constant function 1 is 1/s, by applying the first property we get

By applying the second property we get
