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Grace [21]
2 years ago
5

A ship maneuvers to within 2500 m of an island's 1800 m high mountain peak and fires a projectile at an enemy ship 610 m on the

other side of the peak, as illustrated in Figure 3-29. If the ship shoots the projectile with an initial velocity of v = 248 m/s at an angle of θ = 74°, how close to the enemy ship does the projectile land?
Physics
2 answers:
Ne4ueva [31]2 years ago
3 0
Thank you for posting your question here at brainly. I hope the answer will help you. Feel free to ask more questions.

t=(0-(250sin75)^2)/-9.8 
<span>the distance one is (2500+610)- (250m/s*cos75)*t=Dh Dh=horizontal distance </span>

<span>the max height one is d=0.5*9.8*t^2 </span>
<span>d= max height subtract 1800-d</span>
valkas [14]2 years ago
3 0

Answer: 2714.24 m

Explanation:

The projectile would have to cross the mountain peak to reach the other side and hit the enemy ship.

Vertical component of velocity = Vy = 248 sin 74° m/s = 238.4 m/s

horizontal component of velocity = Vx = 248 cos 74° m/s = 68.4 m/s

The time taken to reach the peak by the projectile would be half the time taken by projectile to cover the horizontal distance across the mountain.

Using second equation of motion:

Δy = Vy t + 0.5 a t²

⇒0 = 238.4 m/s × t + 0.5 × (-9.8 m/s²) t²

t = 238.4/4.9 = 48.6 s

Horizontal distance covered, x = Vx (t) = 68.4 m/s × 48.6 s = 3324.24 m

It lies at (3324.24 - 610) m = 2714.24 m close to the ship.

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3. A large crane lifts a 25,000 kg mass in the air. The amount of work that must be done by the
andreev551 [17]

\mathfrak{\huge{\orange{\underline{\underline{AnSwEr:-}}}}}

Actually Welcome to the concept of Efficiency.

Here we can see that, the Input work is given as 2.2 x 10^7 J and the efficiency is given as 22%

The efficiency is => 22% => 22/100.

so we get as,

E = W(output) /W(input)

hence, W(output) = E x W(input)

so we get as,

W(output) = (22/100) x 2.2 x 10^7

=> W(output) = 0.22 x 2.2 x 10^7 => 0.484 x 10^7

hence, W(output) = 4.84 x 10^6 J

The useful work done on the mass is 4.84 x 10^6 J

5 0
2 years ago
Determine the sign (+ or −) of the torque about the elbow caused by the biceps, τbiceps, the sign of the weight of the forearm,
Alex Ar [27]
Ans: 
1.  τbiceps = +(Positive)
2.  τforearm = -(Negative)
3.  τball = -(Negative)

Explanation:

The figure is attached down below.

1. T<span>orque about the elbow caused by the biceps, τbiceps:
Since Torque = r x F (where r and F are the vectors)
</span>Where r is the vector from elbow to the biceps.
<span>
We can see in the figure that F(biceps) is in upward direction, and by applying the right hand rule from r to F, we get the counterclockwise direction. The torque in counterclockwise direction is positive(+). Therefore, the sign would be +.

2. </span>Torque about the the weight of the forearm, τforearm:
Since Torque = r x F (where r and F are the vectors)
Where r is the vector from elbow to the forearm.

Also weight is the special kind of Force caused by the gravity.

We can see in the figure that W(forearm) is in downward direction, and by applying the right hand rule from r to F, we get the clockwise direction. The torque in clockwise direction is negative(-). Therefore, the sign would be -.

3. Torque about the the weight of the ball, τball:
Since Torque = r x F (where r and F are the vectors)
Where r is the vector from elbow to the ball.

Also weight is the special kind of Force caused by the gravity.

We can see in the figure that W(ball) is in downward direction, and by applying the right hand rule from r to F, we get the clockwise direction. The torque in clockwise direction is negative(-). Therefore, the sign would be -.

8 0
2 years ago
A ball is falling at terminal velocity. Terminal velocity occurs when the ball is in equilibrium and the forces are balanced. Wh
Greeley [361]

Answer:

A free body diagram with 2 forces: the first pointing downward labeled F Subscript g Baseline 20 N and the second pointing upward labeled F Subscript air Baseline 20 N.

Explanation:

This is because at terminal velocity, the ball stops accelerating and the net force on the ball is zero. For the net force to be zero, equal and opposite forces must act on the ball, so that their resultant force is zero. That is F₁ + F₂ = 0 ⇒ F₁ = -F₂

Since F₁ = 20 N, then F₂ = -F₁ = -20 N

So, if F₁ points upwards since it is positive, then F₂ points downwards since it is negative.

So, a free body diagram with 2 forces: the first pointing downward labeled F Subscript g Baseline 20 N and the second pointing upward labeled F Subscript air Baseline 20 N best describes the ball falling at terminal velocity.

4 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Helium (density 0.18 kg/m^3 at 0°C and 1 atm pressure) remains a gas until the extraordinarily low temperature of 4.2 K.What is
balu736 [363]

Answer:

166.6396m/sec

Explanation:

Molar mass of helium = 4\times 10^{-3}kg/mole

\gamma for helium is 1.67

The velocity of helium in sound at any temperature is given by v=\sqrt{\frac{\gamma RT}{M}}=\sqrt{\frac{1.67\times 8.314\times 8}{4\times 10^{-3}}}=166.6396m/sec

R is a constant 8.314 atm\ mol^{-1}K^{-1}

7 0
2 years ago
Calculate the kinetic energy of a motorcycle of mass 60kg travelling at a velocity of 40km/h​
ELEN [110]

Answer:

1848.15J

Explanation:

KE =1/2 mv^2

Mass = 60kg, velocity =40km/h =11.11m/s

Hence

KE =30 x(11.1)^2 /2 = 1848.15J

5 0
2 years ago
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