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Temka [501]
2 years ago
5

To demonstrate the tremendous acceleration of a top fuel drag racer, you attempt to run your car into the back of a dragster tha

t is "burning out" at the red light before the start of a race. (Burning out means spinning the tires at high speed to heat the tread and make the rubber sticky.) You drive at a constant speed of v0 toward the stopped dragster, not slowing down in the face of the imminent collision. The dragster driver sees you coming but waits until the last instant to put down the hammer, accelerating from the starting line at constant acceleration, a. Let the time at which the dragster starts to accelerate be t = 0.
(A) What is tmax, the longest time after the dragster begins to accelerate that you can possibly run into the back of the dragster if you continue at your initial velocity?
Physics
1 answer:
Daniel [21]2 years ago
5 0

Answer:

Explanation:

If the dragster  attains the speed equal to that of the car which is moving with constant velocity of v₀ , before the two close in contact with each othe , there will not be collision .

So the dragster starting from rest , must attain the velocity v₀ in the maximum time given that is tmax .

v = u + a t

v₀ = 0 + a tmax

tmax = v₀ / a

The value of tmax is v₀ / a .

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Dima020 [189]
<span>D) The sun's rays will never be directly overhead. The latitude of 23 ½ degrees north is known as the Tropic of Cancer. Above this imaginary line the sun's rays hit earth with decreased angles.</span>
8 0
2 years ago
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A plane has an average air speed (this is the speed the plane moves through air) of 750 mph. The plane flies a route of 5000 mil
Digiron [165]

Answer:

6 hours 15 minutes

Explanation:

On the trip from L.A. to London, the plane travels at 750 mph against a headwind of 50 mph, and that makes the net 700 mph (in aviation speak, 750 is the airspeed, while 700 is the groundspeed).  5000 miles divided by 700 mph results in about 7.14 hours, or about 7 hours and 9 minutes.  On the return trip, ASSUMING THE SAME WIND, the plane travels at 750 mph, but this time the wind of 50 mph is a tail wind.  So the net (groundspeed) is 800 mph.  Traveling 5000 miles at 800 mph only takes 6.25 hours, or 6 hours and 15 minutes.  

Outbound flight 7 hours 9 minutes

Return flight 6 hours 15 minutes

6 0
1 year ago
A baseball of mass m = 0.49 kg is dropped from a height h1 = 2.25 m. It bounces from the concrete below and returns to a final h
Brilliant_brown [7]

Answer:

Explanation:

Impulse = change in momentum

mv - mu , v and u are final and initial velocity during impact at surface

For downward motion of baseball

v² = u² + 2gh₁

= 2 x 9.8 x 2.25

v = 6.64 m / s

It becomes initial velocity during impact .

For body going upwards

v² = u² - 2gh₂

u² = 2 x 9.8 x 1.38

u = 5.2 m / s

This becomes final velocity after impact

change in momentum

m ( final velocity - initial velocity )

.49 ( 5.2 - 6.64 )

= .7056 N.s.

Impulse by floor in upward direction

= .7056 N.s

6 0
2 years ago
Rotational dynamics about a fixed axis: A person pushes on a small doorknob with a force of 5.00 N perpendicular to the surface
FrozenT [24]

Answer:

I = 2 kgm^2

Explanation:

In order to calculate the moment of inertia of the door, about the hinges, you use the following formula:

\tau=I\alpha     (1)

I: moment of inertia of the door

α: angular acceleration of the door = 2.00 rad/s^2

τ: torque exerted on the door

You can calculate the torque by using the information about the Force exerted on the door, and the distance to the hinges. You use the following formula:

\tau=Fd        (2)

F: force = 5.00 N

d: distance to the hinges = 0.800 m

You replace the equation (2) into the equation (1), and you solve for α:

Fd=I\alpha\\\\I=\frac{Fd}{\alpha}

Finally, you replace the values of all parameters in the previous equation for I:

I=\frac{(5.00N)(0.800m)}{2.00rad/s^2}=2kgm^2

The moment of inertia of the door around the hinges is 2 kgm^2

3 0
2 years ago
A particle of charge 2.3 ✕ 10−8 C experiences an upward force of magnitude 4.6 ✕ 10−6 N when it is placed in a particular point
Marysya12 [62]
<h2>Answer:</h2>

(a) +2 x 10² N/C (upwards)

(b) -2.2μN or -2.2 x 10⁻⁶N (downwards)

<h2>Explanation:</h2>

The force (F) acting on a particle of charge (Q) at a particular point is related to its electric field (E) by the following;

F = Q x E   ----------------------(i)

This means that the force acting on the charged particle is the product of its charge and the electric field at that point.

<em>(a) Given</em>;

Q = charge of the particle = 2.3 x 10⁻⁸ C

F = force acting on the particle = 4.6 x 10⁻⁶N

<em>Substitute these values into equation (i) as follows;</em>

=> 4.6 x 10⁻⁶  = 2.3 x 10⁻⁸ x E

=> E = 4.6 x 10⁻⁶ ÷ 2.3 x 10⁻⁸

=> E =  2 x 10² N/C

Since the value is positive, the electric field is directed upwards.

Therefore, the electric field at that point is +2 x 10² N/C

<em>(b) If a charge of q = -1.1 x 10⁻⁸ is placed there, the force (F) acting is calculated as follows;</em>

<em>Substitute Q = q into equation (i) as follows;</em>

F = q x E

<em>Substitute the value of q and E = 2 x 10² N/C into the equation above as follows;</em>

F = -1.1 x 10⁻⁸ x 2 x 10²

F = -2.2 x 10⁻⁶ N

F = -2.2μN

Since the value of the force, F, is negative, it means it is directed downwards.

Therefore the force on the charge is -2.2μN

3 0
2 years ago
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