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RideAnS [48]
2 years ago
15

A seaplane flies horizontally over the ocean at 50 meters/second. It releases a buoy, which lands after 21 seconds. What's the v

ertical displacement from the plane to the ocean? (Note: Displacement will end up negative, since the direction is down.) Part A: Enter the variable symbol for the quantity you need to find. Use your keyboard and the keypad to enter your answer. Then click Done.
Physics
1 answer:
pantera1 [17]2 years ago
8 0
The motion of the buoy consists of two independent motions on the horizontal and vertical axis.

On the horizontal axis, the motion of the buoy is a uniform motion with constant speed v=50 m/s. On the vertical axis, the motion of the buoy is a uniformly accelerated motion with constant acceleration g=9.81 m/s^2. The vertical position of the buoy at time t is given by
y(t)=h- \frac{1}{2}gt^2
where h is the initial heigth of the buoy when it is released from the plane. At the time t=21 s, the buoy reaches the ground, so y(21 s)=0. If we substitute these two numbers inside the equation, we can find the value of h, the vertical displacement from the plane to the ocean:
0=h- \frac{1}{2}gt^2
h= \frac{1}{2}gt^2= \frac{1}{2}(9.81 m/s^2)(21 s)^2=2163 m
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Which of the following sketches represents a possible configuration for this problem?
garri49 [273]
Where are the following sketches?
7 0
2 years ago
A steel ball bearing with a radius of 1.5 cm forms an image of an object that has been placed 1.1 cm away from the bearing’s sur
Nonamiya [84]

Answer:

Check the explanation

Explanation:

given

R = 1.5 cm

object distance, u = 1.1 cm

focal length of the ball, f = -R/2

= -1.5/2

= -0.75 cm

let v is the image distance

use, 1/u + 1/v = 1/f

1/v = 1/f - 1/u

1/v = 1/(-0.75) - 1/(1.1)

v = -0.446 cm <<<<<---------------Answer

magnification, m = -v/u

= -(-0.446)/1.1

= 0.405 <<<<<<<<<---------------Answer

The image is virtual

The image is upright

given

R = 1.5 cm

object distance, u = 1.1 cm

focal length of the ball, f = -R/2

= -1.5/2

= -0.75 cm

let v is the image distance

use, 1/u + 1/v = 1/f

1/v = 1/f - 1/u

1/v = 1/(-0.75) - 1/(1.1)

v = -0.446 cm <<<<<---------------Answer

magnification, m = -v/u

= -(-0.446)/1.1

= 0.405 <<<<<<<<<---------------Answer

Kindly check the diagram in the attached image below.

5 0
2 years ago
When numbers are very small or very large, it is convenient to either express the value in scientific notation and/or by using a
Oxana [17]

Answer:

5 mg, 5\cdot 10^{-3}g

Explanation:

First of all, let's rewrite the mass in grams using scientific notation.

we have:

m = 0.005 g

To rewrite it in scientific notation, we must count by how many digits we have to move the dot on the right - in this case three. So in scientific notation is

m=5\cdot 10^{-3}g

If  we want to convert into milligrams, we must remind that

1 g = 1000 mg

So we can use the proportion

1 g : 1000 mg = 0.005 g : x

and we find

x=\frac{(1000 mg)(0.005 g)}{1 g}=5 mg

4 0
2 years ago
How much heat Q1 is transferred by 25.0 g of water onto the skin? To compare this to the result in the previous part, continue t
hodyreva [135]

Answer:

The heat transferred  from water to skin  is 6913.5 J.

Explanation:

Given that,

Weight of water = 25.0 g

Suppose that water and steam, initially at 100°C, are cooled down to skin temperature, 34°C, when they come in contact with your skin. Assume that the steam condenses extremely fast. We will further assume a constant specific heat capacity c=4190 J/(kg°K) for both liquid water and steam.

We need to calculate the heat transferred  from water to skin

Using formula for stream

Q=mc\Delta T

Put the value into the formula

Q=25\times10^{-3}\times4190\times(373-307)

Q=6913.5\ J

Hence, The heat transferred  from water to skin  is 6913.5 J.

3 0
2 years ago
Joel uses a claw hammer to remove a nail from a wall. He applies a force of 40 newtons on the hammer. The hammer applies a force
jarptica [38.1K]

Hi!


Mechanical advantage is defined as the<em> ratio of force produced by an object to the force that is applied to it.</em>

In our case, this would be the ratio of the force applied by the claw hammer on the nail to the force Joel applies to the claw hammer, which is

160:40 or 4:1

So the mechanical advantage of the hammer is four.


Hope this helps!


3 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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