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Charra [1.4K]
2 years ago
5

A 25.0-kg child plays on a swing having support ropes that are 2.20 m long. Her brother pulls her back until the ropes are 42.0°

from the vertical and releases her from rest. (a) What is her potential energy just as she is released, compared with the potential energy at the bottom of the swing’s motion? (b) How fast will she be moving at the bottom? (c) How much work does the tension in the ropes do as she swings from the initial position to the bottom of the motion?
Physics
1 answer:
SCORPION-xisa [38]2 years ago
7 0

(a) 139.7 J

The potential energy of the child at the initial position, measured relative the her potential energy at the bottom of the motion, is

U=mg\Delta h

where

m = 25.0 kg is the mass of the child

g = 9.8 m/s^2

\Delta h is the difference in height between the initial position and the bottom position

We are told that the rope is L = 2.20 m long and inclined at 42.0° from the vertical: therefore, \Delta h is given by

\Delta h = L - L cos \theta =L(1-cos \theta)=(2.20 m)(1-cos 42.0^{\circ})=0.57 m

So, her potential energy is

U=(25.0 kg)(9.8 m/s^2)(0.57 m)=139.7 J

(b) 3.3 m/s

At the bottom of the motion, all the initial potential energy of the child has been converted into kinetic energy:

U=K=\frac{1}{2}mv^2

where

m = 25.0 kg is the mass of the child

v is the speed of the child at the bottom position

Solving the equation for v, we find

v=\sqrt{\frac{2K}{m}}=\sqrt{\frac{2(139.7 J)}{25.0 kg}}=3.3 m/s

(c) 0

The work done by the tension in the rope is given by:

W=Td cos \theta

where

T is the tension

d is the displacement of the child

\theta is the angle between the directions of T and d

In this situation, we have that the tension in the rope, T, is always perpendicular to the displacement of the child, d. Therefore, \theta=90^{\circ} and cos \theta=0, so the work done is zero.

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Answer:

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Explanation:

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The mass of man of weight 72 kg is hang from two sections of rope, one section pf rope ties around man waist and other section is ties in man hands. when he pulls down the rope  with 360 N force then each section of  rope pulls with 360 N

we know that

Weight= mass × gravity= 72kg × 9.8 = 705.6N

Force = mass× acceleration

Force= -705.6 + (2 × 358) = 10.4 N

acceleration = \frac{10.4}{72} = 0.14m/s^2

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2 years ago
A metal bar moves through a magnetic field. the induced charges on the bar are
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The mass m1 enters from the left with velocity v0 and strikes a mass m2 > m1 which is initially at rest. The collision betwee
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Answer:

1. False 2) greater than. 3) less than 4) less than

Explanation:

1)

  • As the collision is perfectly elastic, kinetic energy must be conserved.
  • The expression for the final velocity of the mass m₁, for a perfectly elastic collision, is as follows:

        v_{1f} = v_{10} *\frac{m_{1} -m_{2} }{m_{1} +m_{2}}

  • As it can be seen, as m₁ ≠ m₂, v₁f ≠ 0.

2)

  • As total momentum must be conserved, we can see that as m₂ > m₁, from the equation above the final momentum of m₁ has an opposite sign to the initial one, so the momentum of m₂ must be greater than the initial momentum of m₁, to keep both sides of the equation balanced.

3)    

  • The maximum energy stored in the in the spring is given by the following expression:

       U =\frac{1}{2} *k * A^{2}

  • where A = maximum compression of the spring.
  • This energy is always the sum of the elastic potential energy and the kinetic energy of the mass (in absence of friction).
  • When the spring is in a relaxed state, the speed of the mass is maximum, so, its kinetic energy is maximum too.
  • Just prior to compress the spring, this kinetic energy is the kinetic energy of m₂, immediately after the collision.
  • As total kinetic energy must be conserved, the following condition must be met:

       KE_{10} = KE_{1f}  + KE_{2f}

  • So, it is clear that KE₂f  < KE₁₀
  • Therefore, the maximum energy stored in the spring is less than the initial energy in m₁.

4)

  • As explained above, if total kinetic energy must be conserved:

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  • So as kinetic energy is always positive, KEf₂ < KE₁₀.
4 0
2 years ago
To practice Problem-Solving Strategy 10.1 for energy conservation problems. A sled is being held at rest on a slope that makes a
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Answer:

μk = (d1)sin(θ) / [(cosθ)(d1) + (d2)]

Explanation:

To solve this, let's use the work/energy theorem which states that: The change in an object's Kinetic energy is equal to the total work (positive and/or negative) done on the system by all forces.

Now, in this question, the change in the object's KE is zero because it starts at rest and ends at rest. (ΔKE = KE_final − KE_initial = 0). Thus, it means the sum of the work, over the whole trip, must also be zero.

Now, if we consider the work done during the downhill slide,there will be three forces acting on the sled:

1. Weight (gravity). This force vector has magnitude "mg" and points points straight down. It makes an angle of "90°–θ" with the direction of motion. Thus;

Wgrav = (mg)(d1)cos(90°–θ)

From trigonometry, we know that cos(90°–θ) = sinθ, thus:

Wgrav = (mg)(d1)sin(θ)

2. Normal force, Fn=(mg)cosθ. This force vector is perpendicular to the direction of motion, so it does zero work.

3. Friction, Ff = (Fn)μk = (mg) (cosθ)μk and it points directly opposite of the direction of motion,

Thus;

Wfric = –(Fn)(d1) = –(mg)(cosθ)(μk)(d1)

(negative sign because the direction of force opposes the direction of motion.)

So, the total work done on the sled during the downhill phase is:

Wdownhill = [(mg)(d1)sin(θ)] – [(mg)(cosθ)(μk)(d1)]

Now, let's consider the work done during the "horizontal sliding" phase. The forces here are:

1. Gravity: it acts perpendicular to the direction of motion, so it does zero work in this phase.

2. Normal force, Fn = mg. It's also perpendicular to the motion, so it also does zero work.

3. Friction, Ff = (Fn)(μk) = (mg)(μk). Thus; Wfric = –(mg)(μk)(d2) (negative because the direction of the friction force opposes the direction of motion).

The total work done during this horizontal phase is:

Whoriz = –(mg)(μk)(d2)

Hence, the total work done on the sled overall is:

W = Wdownhill + Whoriz

= (mg)(d1)sin(θ) – (mg)(cosθ)(μk)(d1) – (mg)(μk)(d2)

I have deduced that the total work is zero (because change in kinetic energy is zero), thus;

(mg)(d1)sin(θ) – (mg)(cosθ)(μk)(d1) – (mg)(μk)(d2) = 0

Now, let's make μk the subject of the equation:

First of all, divide each term by mg;

(d1)sin(θ) – (cosθ)(μk)(d1) – (μk)(d2) = 0

Rearranging, we have;

(d1)sin(θ) = (cosθ)(μk)(d1) + (μk)(d2)

So,

(d1)sin(θ) = [(cosθ)(d1) + (d2)](μk)

And

μk = (d1)sin(θ) / [(cosθ)(d1) + (d2)]

5 0
2 years ago
It requires 49 J of work to stretch an ideal very light spring from a length of 1.4 m to a length of 2.9 m. What is the value of
nadya68 [22]

Answer:

44 N/m

Explanation:

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The work needed to stretch a spring by <em>e</em> is given by

W = \frac{1}{2} ke^2

where <em>k</em> is spring constant.

k = \dfrac{2W}{e^2}

Using the appropriate values,

k = \dfrac{2\times 49\text{ J}}{1.5^2\text{ m}^2} = 43.55\ldots\text{ N/m} \approx 44\text{ N/m}

3 0
2 years ago
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