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Mademuasel [1]
2 years ago
14

The equilibrium fraction of lattice sites that are vacant in silver (Ag) at 600°C is 1 × 10-6. Calculate the number of vacancies

(per meter cubed) at 600°C. Assume a density of 10.35 g/cm3 for Ag, and note that AAg = 107.87 g/mol.
Physics
1 answer:
algol [13]2 years ago
6 0

Answer :

The number of vacancies (per meter cube) = 5.778 × 10^22/m^3.

Explanation:

Given,

Atomic mass of silver = 107.87 g/mol

Density of silver = 10.35 g/cm^3

Converting to g/m^3,

= 10.35 g/cm^3 × 10^6cm^3/m^3

= 10.35 × 10^6 g/m^3

Avogadro's number = 6.022 × 10^23 atoms/mol

Fraction of lattice sites that are vacant in silver = 1 × 10^-6

Nag = (Na * Da)/Aag

Where,

Nag = Total number of lattice sites in Ag

Na = Avogadro's number

Da = Density of silver

Aag = Atomic weight of silver

= (6.022 × 10^23 × (10.35 × 10^6)/107.87

= 5.778 × 10^28 atoms/m^3

The number of vacancies (per meter cube) = 5.778 × 10^28 × 1 × 10^-6

= 5.778 × 10^22/m^3.

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Studentka2010 [4]

Answer:

- Grand Marais

- Two Harbors

- Duluth

Explanation:

The places that would would get snowfall because of the lake effect are Grand Marais, Two Harbors, and Duluth. The reason for this is that these three places are located right on the shores of the Lake Superior. This lake is one of the biggest lakes in the world. It has enormous amount of water in it, having big impact on the regional climate because of that. The water from this lake creates a lot of humidity in the air, and there's a lot of evaporation as well, both causing the formation of clouds, and when it is cold enough, instead of precipitation, the region gets large amounts of snowfall.

8 0
2 years ago
You start with spring that's already been stretched an unknown amount from equilibrium. After stretching it an additional 2.0 cm
maxonik [38]

Answer: 35*10^3 N/m

Explanation: In order to explain this problem we know that the potential energy for spring is given by:

Up=1/2*k*x^2 where k is the spring constant and x is the streching or compresion position from the equilibrium point for the spring.

We  also know that with additional streching of 2 cm of teh spring,  the potential energy is 18J. Then it applied another additional streching of 2 cm and the energy is 25J.

Then the difference of energy for both cases is 7 J so:

ΔUp= 1/2*k* (0.02)^2 then

k=2*7/(0.02)^2=35000 N/m

7 0
2 years ago
A 3.00-kg model airplane has velocity components of 5.00 m/s due east and 8.00 m/s due north. What is the plane’s kinetic energy
GalinKa [24]

Answer:

Kinetic energy, E = 133.38 Joules

Explanation:

It is given that,

Mass of the model airplane, m = 3 kg

Velocity component, v₁ = 5 m/s (due east)

Velocity component, v₂ = 8 m/s (due north)

Let v is the resultant of velocity. It is given by :

v=\sqrt{v_1^2+v_2^2}

v=\sqrt{5^2+8^2}=9.43\ m/s

Let E is the kinetic energy of the plane. It is given by :

E=\dfrac{1}{2}mv^2

E=\dfrac{1}{2}\times 3\ kg\times (9.43\ m/s)^2

E = 133.38 Joules

So, the kinetic energy of the plane is 133.38 Joules. Hence, this is the required solution.

5 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
A circular loop of wire with a radius of 12.0 cm and oriented in the horizontal xy-plane is located in a region of uniform magne
Ulleksa [173]

(a) 34 V

The average emf induced in the loop is given by Faraday-Newmann-Lenz law:

\epsilon = -\frac{\Delta \Phi_B}{\Delta t} (1)

where

\Delta \Phi_B is the variation of magnetic flux through the coil

\Delta t = 2.0 ms = 0.002 s is the time interval

We need to find the magnetic flux before and after. The magnetic flux is given by:

\Phi_B = BA

where

B is the magnetic field intensity

A is the area of the coil

The radius of the coil is r = 12.0 cm = 0.12 m, so its area is

A=\pi r^2 = \pi (0.12 m)^2 = 0.045 m^2

At the beginning, the magnetic field is

B_i = 1.5 T

so the flux is

\Phi_i = B_i A = (1.5 T)(0.045 m^2)=0.068 Wb

while after the removal of the coil, the magnetic field is zero, so the flux is also zero:

\Phi_f = 0

so the variation of magnetic flux is

\Delta \Phi = 0-0.068 Wb=-0.068 Wb

And substituting into (1) we find the average emf in the coil

\epsilon=-\frac{-0.068 Wb}{0.002 s}=34 V

(b) Counterclockwise

In order to understand the direction of the induced current, we have to keep in mind the negative sign in Lenz's law (1), which tells that the direction of the induced current must be such that the magnetic field produced by this current opposes the variation of magnetic flux in the coil.

In this situation, the magnetic flux through the coil is decreasing, since the coil is removed from the field. So, the induced current must be such that it produces a magnetic field whose direction is the same as the direction of the external magnetic field, which is upward along the positive z-direction.

Looking down from above and using the right-hand rule on the loop (thumb: direction of the current, other fingers wrapped: direction of magnetic field), we see that in order to produce at the center of the coil a magnetic field which is along positive z-direction, the induced current must be counterclockwise.

4 0
2 years ago
Steam at 0.6 MPa, 200 oC, enters an insulated nozzle with a velocity of 50 m/s. It leaves at a pressure of 0.15 MPa and a veloci
Rudiy27

Answer:

x2 = 0.99

Explanation:

from superheated water table

at pressure p1 = 0.6MPa and temperature 200 degree celcius

h1 = 2850.6 kJ/kg

From energy equation we have following relation

\dot m( h1+\frac{v1^2}{2}+ gz1 )+ Q = \dot m( h2+\frac{v2^2}{2}+ gz1) + W

\dot m( h1+\frac{v1^2}{2}) = \dot m( h2+\frac{v2^2}{2})

h1+\frac{v1^2}{2} = h2+\frac{v2^2}{2}

2850.6 + [\frac{50^2}{2} * \frac{1 kJ/kg}{1000 m^2/S^2}] = h2 +[ \frac{600^2}{2} * \frac{1 kJ/kg}{1000 m^2/S^2}]

h2 = 2671.85 kJ/kg

from superheated water table

at pressure p2 = 0.15MPa

specific enthalpy of fluid hf = 467.13 kJ/kg

enthalpy change hfg = 2226.0 kJ/kg

specific enthalpy of the saturated gas hg = 2693.1 kJ/kg

as it can be seen from above value hf>h2>hg, so phase 2 is two phase region. so we have

quality of steam x2

h2 = hf + x2(hfg)

2671.85 = 467.13 +x2*2226.0

x2 = 0.99

6 0
2 years ago
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