We need the power law for the change in potential energy (due to the Coulomb force) in bringing a charge q from infinity to distance r from charge Q. We are only interested in the ratio U₁/U₂, so I'm not going to bother with constants (like the permittivity of space).
<span>The potential energy of charge q is proportional to </span>
<span>∫[s=r to ∞] qQs⁻²ds = -qQs⁻¹|[s=r to ∞] = qQr⁻¹, </span>
<span>so if r₂ = 3r₁ and q₂ = q₁/4, then </span>
<span>U₁/U₂ = q₁Qr₂/(r₁q₂Q) = (q₁/q₂)(r₂/r₁) </span>
<span>= 4•3 = 12.</span>

Actually Welcome to the concept of Efficiency.
Here we can see that, the Input work is given as 2.2 x 10^7 J and the efficiency is given as 22%
The efficiency is => 22% => 22/100.
so we get as,
E = W(output) /W(input)
hence, W(output) = E x W(input)
so we get as,
W(output) = (22/100) x 2.2 x 10^7
=> W(output) = 0.22 x 2.2 x 10^7 => 0.484 x 10^7
hence, W(output) = 4.84 x 10^6 J
The useful work done on the mass is 4.84 x 10^6 J
Magnetic flux can be calculated by the product of the magnetic field and the area that is perpendicular to the field that it penetrates. It has units of Weber or Tesla-m^2. For the first question, when there is no current in the coil, the flux would be:
ΦB = BA
A = πr^2
A = π(.1 m)^2
A = π/100 m^2
ΦB = 2.60x10^-3 T (π/100 m^2 ) ΦB = 8.17x10^-5 T-m^2 or Wb (This is only for one loop of the coil)
The inductance on the coil given the current flows in a certain direction can be calculated by the product of the total number of turns in the coil and the flux of one loop over the current passing through. We do as follows:
L = N (ΦB ) / I
L = 30 (8.17x10^-5 T-m^2) / 3.80 = 6.44x10^-4 mH