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stepladder [879]
2 years ago
9

A 0.50 kilogram ball is held at a height of 20 meters. What is the kinetic energy of the ball when it reaches halfway after bein

g released?
Physics
2 answers:
Nutka1998 [239]2 years ago
7 0

Answer: The kinetic energy of the ball when it reaches halfway after being released is 49 Joules.

Explanation:

Sum of potential energy and kinetic energy always remains constant while freely falling of the body.

At initial point : (when ball is at verge to fall down)

P.E+K.E=mgh+\frac{1}{2}mv^2=0.50\times 9.8m/s^2\times 20 m+\frac{1}{2}\times 0.50 kg\times (0 m/s)^2=98 Joules

At the point when ball reaches half way at height of h', h'=10 m

P.E+K.E=

=mgh'+\frac{1}{2}mv'^2=0.50\times 9.8m/s^2\times 10 m+\frac{1}{2}\times 0.50 kg\times (v' m/s)^2=49 Joules+\frac{1}{2}\times 0.50 kg\times (v' m/s)^2

P.E+K.E=98 J=49 Joules+\frac{1}{2}\times 0.50 kg\times (v' m/s)^2

K.E=\frac{1}{2}mv'^2=98 J-49 J=49 J

The kinetic energy of the ball when it reaches halfway after being released is 49 Joules.

Margarita [4]2 years ago
6 0
Potential energy at any point is (M G H). On the way down, only H changes. So halfway down, half of the potential energy remains, and the other half has turned to kinetic energy. Half of the (M G H) it had at the tpp is (0.5 x 9.8 x 10) = 49 joules.
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A beam of electrons is sent horizontally down the axis of a tube to strike a fluorescent screen at the end of the tube. On the w
slamgirl [31]

Answer:

The answer is 3.

Explanation:

The answer to this question can be found by applying the right hand rule for which the pointer finger is in the direction of the electron movement, the thumb is pointing in the direction of the magnetic field, so the effect that this will have on the electrons is the direction that the middle finger points in which is right in this example.

So as a result of the magnetic field directed vertically downwards which is at a right angle with the electron beams, the electrons will move to the right and the spot will be deflected to the right of the screen when looking from the electron source.

I hope this answer helps.

4 0
2 years ago
Three wires meet at a junction. Wire 1 has a current of 0.40 A into the junction. The current of wire 2 is 0.75 A out of the jun
AlexFokin [52]

Answer:

number of electrons = 2.18*10^18 e

Explanation:

In order to calculate the number of electrons that move trough the second wire, you take into account one of the Kirchoff's laws. All the current that goes inside the junction, has to go out the junction.

Then, if you assume that the current of the wire 1 and 3 go inside the junction, then, all this current have to go out trough the second junction:

i_1+i_3=i_2                 (1)

i1 = 0.40 A

i2 = 0.75 A

you solve the equation i3 from the equation (1):

i_3=i_2-i_1=0.75A-0.40A=0.35A

Next, you take into account that 1A = 1C/s = 6.24*10^18

Then, you have:

0.35A=0.35\frac{C}{s}=0.35*\frac{6.24*10^{18}e}{s}=2.18*10^{18}\frac{e}{s}

The number of electrons that trough the wire 3 is 2.18*10^18 e/s

3 0
2 years ago
A truck is traveling down a road with a 4-percent grade at a speed of 75 mi/h when its brakes are applied to slow it down to 22.
kvasek [131]

Answer:

3.964 s

Explanation:

Metric unit conversion:

1 miles = 1.6 km = 1600 m.

1 hour = 60 minutes = 3600 seconds

75 mph = 75 * 1600 / 3600 = 33.3 m/s

22.5 mph = 22.5 * 1600/3600 = 10 m/s

Let g = 9.81 m/s2

Friction is the product of coefficient and normal force, which equals to the gravity

F_f = \mu N = \mu mg

The deceleration caused by friction is friction divided by mass according to Newton 2nd law.

a = F_f / m = \mu mg / m = \mu g = 0.6 *9.81 = 5.886 m/s^2

So the time required to decelerate from 33.3 m/s to 10 m/s so the wheels don't slide, with the rate of 5.886 m/s2 is

t = \frac{\Delta v}{a} = \frac{33.3 - 10}{5.886} = 3.964 s

3 0
1 year ago
Water at 20°C flows by gravity through a smooth pipe from one reservoir to a lower one. The elevation difference is 60 m. The pi
Serga [27]

Answer:

Flow Rate = 80 m^3 /hours  (Rounded to the nearest whole number)

Explanation:

Given

  • Hf = head loss
  • f = friction factor
  • L = Length of the pipe = 360 m
  • V = Flow velocity, m/s
  • D = Pipe diameter = 0.12 m
  • g = Gravitational acceleration, m/s^2
  • Re = Reynolds's Number
  • rho = Density =998 kg/m^3
  • μ = Viscosity = 0.001 kg/m-s
  • Z = Elevation Difference = 60 m

Calculations

Moody friction loss in the pipe = Hf = (f*L*V^2)/(2*D*g)

The energy equation for this system will be,

Hp = Z + Hf

The other three equations to solve the above equations are:

Re = (rho*V*D)/ μ

Flow Rate, Q = V*(pi/4)*D^2

Power = 15000 W = rho*g*Q*Hp

1/f^0.5 = 2*log ((Re*f^0.5)/2.51)

We can iterate the 5 equations to find f and solve them to find the values of:

Re = 235000

f = 0.015

V = 1.97 m/s

And use them to find the flow rate,

Q = V*(pi/4)*D^2

Q = (1.97)*(pi/4)*(0.12)^2 = 0.022 m^3/s = 80 m^3 /hours

7 0
2 years ago
A lens of focal length 15.0 cm is held 10.0 cm from a page (the object ). Find the magnification .
nevsk [136]

Answer:

Magnification, m = 3

Explanation:

It is given that,

Focal length of the lens, f = 15 cm

Object distance, u = -10 cm

Lens formula :

\dfrac{1}{v}-\dfrac{1}{u}=\dfrac{1}{f}

v is image distance

\dfrac{1}{v}=\dfrac{1}{f}+\dfrac{1}{u}\\\\\dfrac{1}{v}=\dfrac{1}{15}+\dfrac{1}{(-10)}\\\\v=-30\ cm

Magnification,

m=\dfrac{v}{u}\\\\m=\dfrac{-30}{10}\\\\m=3

So, the magnification of the lens is 3.

3 0
2 years ago
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