A recipe calls for 1 part beans to 1½ parts rice. If 1½ parts of beans are used, how much rice should be used?

Mathematics

1 answer:

marshall27 [118]2 years ago

7 0

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

The answer is 2 because if it is 1 1/2 for rice and 1 for beans then you add 1/2 to beans you should also add 1/2 to rice which would equal 2 because 2 halves make a whole.

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