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Eddi Din [679]
2 years ago
10

An electromagnetic wave is produced by charged particles vibrating at a rate of 3.9 x 10^8 vibrations per second. the electromag

netic wave is classified as
Physics
2 answers:
77julia77 [94]2 years ago
7 0

According to sources, the most probable answer to this query is visible light. The speed of light is approximately 3 x 10^8 m/s. This is the part of the electromagnetic spectrum that we can see and perceive. Thank you for your question. Please don't hesitate to ask in Brainly your queries.
tresset_1 [31]2 years ago
7 0

Answer:

The given electromagnetic wave is a radio wave.

Explanation:

Rate of vibration of the particle or frequency of the electromagnetic wave:

frequency = \nu=3.9\times 10^8 vibrations per second

Wave length of the electromagnetic wave will be given by:

\lambda =\frac{c}{\nu}

\lambda =\frac{3\times 10^8 m/s}{3.9\times 10^8}=0.769 m

The wavelength of of the electromagnetic wave is lying in the range of 1 mm to 100 km that is radio wave.

Hence ,the given electromagnetic wave is a radio wave.

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A 4.0-mF capacitor initially charged to 50 V and a 6.0-mF capacitor charged to 30 V are connected to each other with the positiv
Juli2301 [7.4K]

Answer:

<em>The final charge on the 6.0 mF capacitor would be 12 mC</em>

Explanation:

The initial charge on 4 mF capacitor  = 4 mf  x 50 V = 200 mC

The initial Charge on 6 mF capacitor  = 6 mf x 30 V =180 mC

Since the negative ends are joined together  the total charge on both capacity would be;

q = q_{1} -q_{2}

q = 200 - 180

q = 20 mC

In order to find the final charge on the 6.0 mF capacitor we have to find the combined voltage

q = (4 x V) + (6 x V)

20 = 10 V

V = 2 V

For the final charge on 6.0 mF;

q = CV

q = 6.0 mF x 2 V

q =  12 mC

Therefore the final charge on the 6.0 mF capacitor would be 12 mC

5 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
You are learning about energy transformations in science class. Mel and Sam's built this set-up to see if light energy could be
Allisa [31]
I think it might be heat energy. light transforms into heat energy
5 0
2 years ago
Heat engines were first envisioned and built during the industrial revolution. Explain the thermodynamics of a heat engine comme
Artyom0805 [142]

Heat engines were developed during industrial revolution.

Generally a heat engine contains three parts i.e source, sink and working substance.

The source of a heat engine is present at a higher temperature as compared to the sink. Due to the temperature difference, the heat will flow from source to sink through working substance.

Let us consider  T_{1}\ and\ T_{2} are the temperature of source and sink.

As the source is at higher temperature as compared to sink, heat will flow from source to sink.

Let\ Q_{1}\ and\ Q_{2} are the heat provided by source and heat rejected to sink.

Hence, the work done by the working substance will be -

                                                W\ =\ Q_{1}-Q_{2}

The efficiency of a heat engine is defined as the ratio of output to the input energy.

Here output = workdone [W]

Hence, the efficiency of a heat engine is calculated as -

                     Efficiency\ [\eta]=\frac{W}{Q_{1}}

                                        \eta\ =\frac{Q_{1}- Q_{2}} {Q_{1}}

                                               =\ 1-\frac{Q_{2}} {Q_{1}}

This is the expression for the efficiency of heat engine.

Here, all the heat absorbed by the working substance can not be converted to desired output. The efficiency of a heat engine can not be 100 percent. Some amount of heat is lost in the form of sound and heat due to the friction which is produced due to the relative motion between various parts of the machine.

6 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
23. While sliding a couch across a floor, Andrea and Jennifer exert forces F → A and F → J on the couch. Andrea’s force is due n
PSYCHO15rus [73]

Answer:

a)  (95.4 i^ + 282.6 j^) N , b) 298.27 N  71.3º and c)   F' = 298.27 N   θ = 251.4º

Explanation:

a) Let's use trigonometry to break down Jennifer's strength

      sin θ = Fjy / Fj

      cos θ = Fjx / Fj

Analyze the angle is 32º east of the north measuring from the positive side of the x-axis would be

          T = 90 -32 = 58º

         Fjy = Fj sin 58

         Fjx = FJ cos 58

         Fjx = 180 cos 58 = 95.4 N

         Fjy = 180 sin 58 = 152.6 N

Andrea's force is

         Fa = 130.0 j ^

We perform the summary of force on each axis

X axis

       Fx = Fjx

       Fx = 95.4 N

Axis y

       Fy = Fjy + Fa

       Fy = 152.6 + 130

       Fy = 282.6 N

       F = (95.4 i ^ + 282.6 j ^) N

b) Let's use the Pythagorean theorem and trigonometry

       F² = Fx² + Fy²

       F = √ (95.4² + 282.6²)

       F = √ (88963)

       F = 298.27 N

       tan θ = Fy / Fx

       θ = tan-1 (282.6 / 95.4)

       θ = tan-1 (2,962)

       θ = 71.3º

c) To avoid the movement they must apply a force of equal magnitude, but opposite direction

       F' = 298.27 N

       θ' = 180 + 71.3

       θ = 251.4º

4 0
2 years ago
The center of a long frictionless rod is pivoted at the origin and the rod is forced to rotate at a constant angular velocity Q
Doss [256]

Answer:

The answers can be found attached.

7 0
2 years ago
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