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kirill [66]
2 years ago
12

Learning goal: to practice problem-solving strategy 6.1 work and kinetic energy. your cat "ms." (mass 8.50 kg ) is trying to mak

e it to the top of a frictionless ramp 2.00 m long and inclined 19.0 ∘ above the horizontal. since the poor cat can't get any traction on the ramp, you push her up the entire length of the ramp by exerting a constant 41.0 n force parallel to the ramp. if ms. is moving at 1.90 m/s at the bottom of the ramp, what is her speed when she reaches the top of the incline?

Physics
1 answer:
ivann1987 [24]2 years ago
3 0
Refer to the diagram shown below.

m = 8.5 kg, the mass of the cat
F = 41.0 N, the force acting up the incline on the cat
θ = 19°, the inclination of the ramp to the horizontal
u = 1.9 m/s, the initial speed along the ramp of the cat
s = 2 m, the length of the ramp
g = 9.8 m/s²
Friction is negligible.

The force F is the component of the cat's weight along the ramp.
F = mg sinθ 
   = (8.5 kg)*(9.8 m/s²) sin(19°)
   = 27. 1198 N

The net force pushing the cat up the ramp is
41.0 - 27.1198 = 13.88 N

If the acceleration of the cat up the ramp is a, then
(8.5 kg)*(a m/s²) = 13.88 N
a = 1.6329 m/s²

Let v =  the velocity at the top of the ramp.
Then
v² = u² + 2as
v² = (1.9 m/s)² + 2*(1.6329 m/s²)*(2 m) = 10.1416 (m/s)²
v = 3.185 m/s

Answer: 3.185 m/s

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egoroff_w [7]

The acceleration of the jet is 28.1 m/s^2

Explanation:

Since the motion of the jet is a uniformly accelerated motion, we can use the following suvat equation:

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a is the acceleration

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2 years ago
Justine is ice-skating at the Lloyd Center what is her final velocity if she accelerates at a rate of 2.0 meters per second for
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7 0
1 year ago
1. A particular lever is 90.0% efficient. If 50.0 J of work are done on the lever, then how much work does the lever do on its l
laila [671]

Answer:

Explanation:

Using the efficiency formula;

Efficiency = Work done by the machine (output)/work done on the machine (input) ×100%

Efficiency =w/50 ×100

90 = 100w/50

Cross multiply

90×50 = 100W

4500 = 100W

W = 4500/100

W = 45Joules

Hence the lever does 45Joules of work on its load

2) Mechanical Advantage= Load/Effort

Given

MA = 4

Load = 500N

4 = 500/Effort

Effort = 500/4

Effort =125N

Hence the effort required to lift the load is 125N

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1 year ago
A pump moves water horizontally at a rate of 0.02 m3/s. Upstream of the pump where the pipe diameter is 90 mm, the pressure is 1
victus00 [196]

Answer:

the efficiency of hydralic is 79.88%

Explanation:

convert mm to m

1mm = (1/1000)m

diameter of pipe upsteam

d₁= 90mm= 0.09m

diameter of pipe downsteam

d₂= 30mm = 0.03m

finding velocity of upsteam

recall Q=A₁V₁

V₁=Q/A₁

V₁=3.14m/s

velocity of downsteam

V₂= Q/A₂

V₂= 28.29m/s

mass flow rate

m= ρQ

ρ is the density of water

m = 1000× 0.02

m= 20kg/s

the efficiency of hydralic is 79.88%

6 0
1 year ago
The coefficient of friction between the 2-lb block and the surface is μ=0.2. The block has an initial speed of Vβ =6 ft/s and is
Taya2010 [7]

Answer:

x = 0.0685 m

Explanation:

In this exercise we can use the relationship between work and energy conservation

            W = ΔEm

Where the work is

             W = F x

The energy can be found in two points

Initial. Just when the block with its spring spring touches the other spring

           Em₀ = K = ½ m v²

Final. When the system is at rest

            Em_{f} = K_{e1}b +K_{e2} = ½ k₁ x² + ½ k₂ x²

We can find strength with Newton's second law

            ∑ F = F - fr

Axis y

           N- W = 0

           N = W

The friction force has the equation

          fr = μ N

          fr = μ W

  The job

         W = (F – μ W) x

We substitute in the equation

            (F - μ W) x = ½ m v² - (½ k₁ x² + ½ k₂ x²)

           ½ x² (k₁ + k₂) + (F - μ W) x - ½ m v² = 0

We substitute values ​​and solve

           ½ x² (20 + 40) + (15 -0.2 2) x - ½ (2/32) 6² = 0

         x² 30 + 14.4 x - 1,125 = 0

        x² + 0.48 x - 0.0375 = 0

           

We solve the second degree equation

        x = [-0.48 ±√(0.48 2 + 4 0.0375)] / 2

        x = [-0.48 ± 0.617] / 2

        x₁ = 0.0685 m

        x₂ = -0.549 m

The first result results from compression of the spring and the second torque elongation.

The result of the problem is x = 0.0685 m

4 0
2 years ago
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