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jeka94
2 years ago
13

The starter armature is rubbing on the field coils. technician a says the bushings need to be replaced. technician b says the br

ush springs are weak. who is correct?
Physics
2 answers:
masya89 [10]2 years ago
8 0

Answer : Option A) the bushings need to be replaced.

Explanation : When a technician notices that the starter armature is getting rubbed on the field coils, his advise for changing the bushings seems to be correct in this case. This problem usually arises because of the malfunctioning of the bushings placed in the armature. So, it will be better to replace it with the new ones.

Viefleur [7K]2 years ago
6 0
In a situation in which the smarter armiture is rubbing on the field the most commin reason are defective bushings. So, the ststement the techician A ssys that the brushings shojld be replaced is correct. Techinican A is right.
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An aluminum rod and a nickel rod are both 5.00 m long at 20.0 degree Celsius. The temperature of each is raised to 70.0 degrees
vitfil [10]

Answer:

0.002925 m

Explanation:

Lt = LO(1 +α Δt ) here Lt is total length Lo is original length α is coefficient of linear expansion and Δt is change in temperature

<h2>for aluminium</h2>

α=25×10^-6

Lt = 5(1+25×10^-6×(70-20))

Lt = 5 (1+25×10^-6×50)

Lt = 5 ( 1+0.00125)

Lt = 5×1.00125

Lt =5.00625 m

<h2>for nickel </h2>

α=13.3×10^-6

Lt =5(1+13.3×10^-6×50)

Lt = 5(1+0.000665)

Lt =5.003325 m

hence difference in length =5.00625-5.003325

                                           = 0.002925 m

3 0
2 years ago
Every spring has an equilibrium position. Which statements describe a spring at its equilibrium position? Check all that
alexgriva [62]

Answer:

The elastic potential energy is zero.

The net force acting on the spring is zero.

Explanation:

The equilibrium position of a spring is the position that the spring has when its neither compressed nor stretched - it is also called natural length of the spring.

Let's now analyze the different statements:

The spring constant is zero.  --> false. The spring constant is never zero.

The elastic potential energy is at a maximum  --> false. The elastic potential energy of a spring is given by

E=\frac{1}{2}kx^2

where k is the spring constant and x the displacement. Therefore, the elastic potential energy is maximum when x, the displacement, is maximum.

The elastic potential energy is zero.  --> true. As we saw from the equation above, the elastic potential energy is zero when the displacement is zero (at the equilibrium position).

The displacement of the spring is at a maxi num  --> false, for what we said above

The net force acting on the spring is zero. --> true, as the spring is neither compressed nor stretched

8 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Dawn and Aram have stretched a slinky between them and begin experimenting with waves. As the frequency of the waves is doubled
m_a_m_a [10]

Answer:

halved

Explanation:

The velocity of the a wave is obtained by multiplying the frequency and wavelength.

v=f\lambda\\\Rightarrow f=\frac{v}{\lambda}\\\Rightarrow \lambda=\frac{v}{f}

Where

v = Velocity

f = Frequency

\lambda = Wavelength

The velocity here is constant. So, if the frequency is doubled the wavelength is halved.

6 0
2 years ago
A circular coil has a 10.0 cm radius and consists of 30.0 closely wound turns of wire. an externally produced magnetic field of
IrinaVladis [17]
Magnetic flux can be calculated by the product of the magnetic field and the area that is perpendicular to the field that it penetrates. It has units of Weber or Tesla-m^2. For the first question, when there is no current in the coil, the flux would be:

ΦB = BA
          A = πr^2
          A = π(.1 m)^2
          A = π/100 m^2   

 ΦB = 2.60x10^-3 T (π/100 m^2 ) ΦB = 8.17x10^-5 T-m^2 or Wb (This is only for one loop of the coil)

The inductance on the coil given the current flows in a certain direction can be calculated by the product of the total number of turns in the coil and the flux of one loop over the current passing through. We do as follows:

L = N (ΦB ) / I
L = 30 (8.17x10^-5 T-m^2) / 3.80 = 6.44x10^-4 mH

6 0
2 years ago
An electron and a proton are held on an x axis, with the electron at x = + 1.000 m and the proton at x = - 1.000 m.how much work
aksik [14]
It is required an infinite work. The additional electron will never reach the origin.

In fact, assuming the additional electron is coming from the positive direction, as it approaches x=+1.00 m it will become closer and closer to the electron located at x=+1.00 m. However, the electrostatic force between the two electrons (which is repulsive) will become infinite when the second electron reaches x=+1.00 m, because the distance d between the two electrons is zero:
F=k_e  \frac{q_e q_e}{d^2}
So, in order for the additional electron to cross this point, it is required an infinite amount of work, which is impossible.
5 0
2 years ago
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