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Otrada [13]
2 years ago
5

a skier speeds along a flat patch of snow, and then flies horizontally off the edge at 16.0 m/s. He eventually lands on a straig

ht, sloped section that is at an angle of 45.0∘ below the horizontal. How long is he in the air?
Physics
1 answer:
geniusboy [140]2 years ago
5 0

Answer:

1.63 s

Explanation:

The skier lands on the sloped section when the direction of its velocity is exactly identical to that of the slope, so at 45.0^{\circ} below the horizontal.

This occurs when the magnitude of the vertical velocity is equal to the horizontal velocity (in fact, \tan \theta =\frac{|v_y|}{v_x}, and since \theta=45.0^{\circ}, tan \theta = 1 and so |v_y| = v_x.

We already know the horizontal velocity of the skier:

v_x = 16.0 m/s

And this is constant during the entire motion.

The vertical velocity instead is given by

v_y = u_y + gt

where

u_y = 0 is the initial vertical velocity (zero since the skier flies off horizontally)

g = 9.8 m/s^2

t is the time

Here we have chosen the downward direction as positive direction.

Substituting v_y = 16.0 m/s, we find the time:

t=\frac{v_y}{g}=\frac{16.0}{9.8}=1.63 s

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Consider the waveform expression. y (x, t) = ym sin (0.333x + 5.36 + 585t) The transverse displacement (y) of a wave is given as
Sonja [21]

Explanation:

The waveform expression is given by :

y(x,t)=y_m\ sin(0.333x+5.36+585t)...........(1)

Where

y is the position

t is the time in seconds

The general waveform equation is given by :

y(x,t)=y_m\ sin(kx+\phi+\omega t)..........(2)

Where

k=\dfrac{2\pi}{\lambda}

\omega=2\pi f

On comparing equation (1) and (2) we get :

0.333=\dfrac{2\pi}{\lambda}

\lambda=18.86\ m

585=2\pi f

f = 93.10 Hz

Time period, T=\dfrac{1}{f}

T=\dfrac{1}{0.010}

T = 0.010 s

Phase constant, \phi=5.36\ radian

Hence, this is the required solution.

8 0
2 years ago
Two horizontal rods are each held up by vertical strings tied to their ends. Rod 1 has length L and mass M; rod 2 has length 2L
antiseptic1488 [7]

Answer:

Rod 1 has greater initial angular acceleration; The initial angular acceleration for rod 1 is greater than for rod 2.

Explanation:

For the rod 1 the angular acceleration is

\tau_1 = I_1\alpha _1 \\\\\alpha_1 = \dfrac{\tau_1}{I_1}

Similarly, for rod 2

\alpha_2 = \dfrac{\tau_2}{I_2}.

Now, the moment of inertia for rod 1 is

I_1 = \dfrac{1}{3}ML^2,

and the torque acting on it is (about the center of mass)

\tau_1 = Mg\dfrac{L}{2};

therefore, the angular acceleration of rod 1 is  

\alpha_1 = \dfrac{Mg\dfrac{L}{2}}{\dfrac{1}{3}ML^2},

\boxed{\alpha_1 = \dfrac{3g}{2L} }

Now, for rod 2 the moment of inertia is

I_2 = \dfrac{1}{3}(2M)(2L)^2

I_2 = \dfrac{8}{3} ML^2,

and the torque acting is (about the center of mass)

\tau _2 = (2M)g \dfrac{(2L)}{2}

\tau _2 = 2MgL;

therefore, the angular acceleration \alpha_2 is

\alpha_2 = \dfrac{2MgL;}{\dfrac{8}{3} ML^2,}.

\boxed{\alpha_2 = \dfrac{3g}{4L}}

We see here that

\dfrac{3g}{2L} > \dfrac{3g}{4L}

therefore

\boxed{\alpha_1 > \alpha_2.}

In other words , the initial angular acceleration for rod 1 is greater than for rod 2.

7 0
1 year ago
A soup company wants to manufacture a can in the shape of a right circular cylinder that will hold 500 cm^3 of liquid. The mater
Rom4ik [11]
The area of the top and bottom:
2πr²
Cost for top and bottom:
2πr²  x 0.02
= 0.04πr²

Area for side:
2πrh
Cost for side:
2πrh x 0.01
= 0.02πrh

Total cost:
C = 0.04πr² + 0.02πrh

We know that the volume of the can is:
V = πr²h
h = 500/πr²

Substituting this into the cost equation to get a cost function of radius:
C(r) = 0.04πr² + 0.02πr(500/πr²)
C(r) = 0.04πr² + 10/r

Now, we differentiate with respect to r and equate to 0 to obtain the minimum value:

0 = 0.08πr - 10/r²
10/r² = 0.08πr
r³ = 125/π

r = 3.41 cm
4 0
2 years ago
A charge of 8.4 × 10–4 C moves at an angle of 35° to a magnetic field that has a field strength of 6.7 × 10–3 T. If the magnetic
larisa86 [58]

Answer:

The charge is moving with the  velocity of 1.1\times10^{4}\ m/s.

Explanation:

Given that,

Charge q =8.4\times10^{-4}\ C

Angle = 35°

Magnetic field strength B=6.7\times10^{-3}\ T

Magnetic force F=3.5\times10^{-2}\ N

We need to calculate the velocity.

The Lorentz force exerted by the magnetic field on a moving charge.

The magnetic force is defined as:

F = qvB\sin\theta

v = \dfrac{F}{qB\sin\theta}

Where,

F =  Magnetic force

q = charge

B = Magnetic field strength

v = velocity

Put the value into the formula

v =\dfrac{3.5\times10^{-2}}{8.4\times10^{-4}\times6.7\times10^{-3}\times\sin35^{\circ}}

v =\dfrac{3.5\times10^{-2}}{8.4\times10^{-4}\times6.7\times10^{-3}\times0.57}

v = 10910.36\ m/s

v = 1.1\times10^{4}\ m/s

Hence, The charge is moving with the  velocity of 1.1\times10^{4}\ m/s.

4 0
2 years ago
The SI units for measuring the velocity of the car: The SI units for measuring the acceleration of the car: The SI units for mea
klasskru [66]

Velocity ... m/s (meters per second) and angle

Acceleration ... m/s^2 and angle

Force ... Newton (kg-m/s^2) and angle

Mass ... kilogram

3 0
2 years ago
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