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34kurt
2 years ago
11

A 5.0-g marble is released from rest in the deep end of a swimming pool. An underwater video reveals that its terminal speed in

the water is 0.30 m/s. (a) What is the acceleration of the marble at the instant it is released? (b) What is the acceleration of the marble when it has reached its terminal speed? (c) How long does it take the marble to reach half its terminal speed?
Physics
1 answer:
Temka [501]2 years ago
3 0

Answer:

a) a = -g = 9.8 m/s² , b) a = 0 m/s² and c)   t1 = 0.0213 s

Explanation:

a) At the moment the marble is released its velocity is zero, so it has no resistance force, the only force acting is its weight, so the acceleration is the acceleration of gravity

       a = -g = 9.8 m / s²

b) When the marble goes its terminal velocity all forces have been equalized, therefore, the sum of them is zero and consequently if acceleration is also zero

      a = 0 m / s²

c) We have to assume a specific type of resistive force, for liquid in general the resistive force is proportional to the speed of the body.

The expression of this situation is

         v = mg / b (1 -e^{-bt/m} )

For a very long time the exponential is zero, so the terminal velocity is

        v_{T} = mg / b

        b = mg /  v_{T}

        b = 5 10-3 9.8 / 0.3

        b = 0.163

We already have all the data to calculate the time for v = ½ v_{T}

        ½ v_{T} = v_{T} (1 -e^{-bt/m})

        ½ = 1- e (- 0.163 t1 / 5 10-3)

        e (-32.6 t1) = 1-0.5              (by  ln())

       -32.6 t1 = ln 0.5

       t1 = -1 / 32.6 (-0.693)

       t1 = 0.0213 s

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A 0.0140 kg bullet traveling at 205 m/s east hits a motionless 1.80 kg block and bounces off it, retracing its original path wit
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Answer:

Final velocity of the block = 2.40 m/s east.

Explanation:

Here momentum is conserved.

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Initial velocity of block = 0 m/s

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Final momentum = 0.014 x -103+ 1.8 x u = -1.442 + 1.8 u

We have

            2.87 = -1.442 + 1.8 u

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Final velocity of the block = 2.40 m/s east.

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Suppose Galileo dropped a lead ball (100 kilograms) and a glass ball (1 kilogram) from the Leaning Tower of Pisa. Which one hit
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Planetary orbits... are spaced more closely together as they get further from the Sun. are evenly spaced throughout the solar sy
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Kepler's laws establish that:

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The square of the period of a planet will be proportional to the cube of the semi-major axis of its orbit (Kepler's third law).

T^{2} = a^{3}

Where T is the period of revolution and a is the semi-major axis.

Planets orbit around the Sun in an ellipse with the Sun in one of the focus. Because of that, it is not possible to the Sun to be at the center of the orbit, as the statement on option "C" says.

However, those orbits have low eccentricities (remember that an eccentricity = 0 corresponds to a circle)

In some moments of their orbit, planets will be closer to the Sun (known as perihelion). According with Kepler's second law to complete the same area in the same time, they have to speed up at their perihelion and slow down at their aphelion (point farther from the Sun in their orbit).

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2 years ago
The weight of an object is the same on two different planets. The mass of planet A is only sixty percent that of planet B. Find
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Answer:

0.775

Explanation:

The weight of an object on a planet is equal to the gravitational force exerted by the planet on the object:

F=G\frac{Mm}{R^2}

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M is the mass of the planet

m is the mass of the object

R is the radius of the planet

For planet A, the weight of the object is

F_A=G\frac{M_Am}{R_A^2}

For planet B,

F_B=G\frac{M_Bm}{R_B^2}

We also know that the weight of the object on the two planets is the same, so

F_A = F_B

So we can write

G\frac{M_Am}{R_A^2} = G\frac{M_Bm}{R_B^2}

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M_A = 0.60 M_B

Substituting,

G\frac{0.60 M_Bm}{R_A^2} = G\frac{M_Bm}{R_B^2}

Now we can elimanate G, MB and m from the equation, and we get

\frac{0.60}{R_A^2}=\frac{1}{R_B^2}

So the ratio between the radii of the two planets is

\frac{R_A}{R_B}=\sqrt{0.60}=0.775

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