Answer:
Since the spring mass system will execute simple harmonic motion the position as a function of time can be written as
'A' is the amplitude = 6 inches (given)
is the natural frequency of the system
At equilibrium we have

Applying values we get

thus natural frequency equals

Thus the equation of motion becomes

At time t=0 since mass is at it's maximum position thus we have

Thus the position of mass at the given times is as follows
1) at

2) at

3) at

4) at

5) at

Answer:
the efficiency of hydralic is 79.88%
Explanation:
convert mm to m
1mm = (1/1000)m
diameter of pipe upsteam
d₁= 90mm= 0.09m
diameter of pipe downsteam
d₂= 30mm = 0.03m
finding velocity of upsteam
recall Q=A₁V₁
V₁=Q/A₁
V₁=3.14m/s
velocity of downsteam
V₂= Q/A₂
V₂= 28.29m/s
mass flow rate
m= ρQ
ρ is the density of water
m = 1000× 0.02
m= 20kg/s
the efficiency of hydralic is 79.88%
Answer:
ºC
Explanation:
First, let's write the energy balance over the duct:

It says that the energy that goes out from the duct (which is in enthalpy of the mass flow) must be equals to the energy that enters in the same way plus the heat that is added to the air. Decompose the enthalpies to the mass flow and specific enthalpies:

The enthalpy change can be calculated as Cp multiplied by the difference of temperature because it is supposed that the pressure drop is not significant.

So, let's isolate
:

The Cp of the air at 27ºC is 1007
(Taken from Keenan, Chao, Keyes, “Gas Tables”, Wiley, 1985.); and the only two unknown are
and Q.
Q can be found knowing that the heat flux is 600W/m2, which is a rate of heat to transfer area; so if we know the transfer area, we could know the heat added.
The heat transfer area is the inner surface area of the duct, which can be found as the perimeter of the cross section multiplied by the length of the duct:
Perimeter:

Surface area:

Then, the heat Q is:

Finally, find the exit temperature:

=27.0000077 ºC
The temperature change so little because:
- The mass flow is so big compared to the heat flux.
- The transfer area is so little, a bigger length would be required.
Answer:
h = 2 R (1 +μ)
Explanation:
This exercise must be solved in parts, first let us know how fast you must reach the curl to stay in the
let's use the mechanical energy conservation agreement
starting point. Lower, just at the curl
Em₀ = K = ½ m v₁²
final point. Highest point of the curl
= U = m g y
Find the height y = 2R
Em₀ = Em_{f}
½ m v₁² = m g 2R
v₁ = √ 4 gR
Any speed greater than this the body remains in the loop.
In the second part we look for the speed that must have when arriving at the part with friction, we use Newton's second law
X axis
-fr = m a (1)
Y Axis
N - W = 0
N = mg
the friction force has the formula
fr = μ N
fr = μ m g
we substitute 1
- μ mg = m a
a = - μ g
having the acceleration, we can use the kinematic relations
v² = v₀² - 2 a x
v₀² = v² + 2 a x
the length of this zone is x = 2R
let's calculate
v₀ = √ (4 gR + 2 μ g 2R)
v₀ = √4gR( 1 + μ)
this is the speed so you must reach the area with fricticon
finally have the third part we use energy conservation
starting point. Highest on the ramp without rubbing
Em₀ = U = m g h
final point. Just before reaching the area with rubbing
= K = ½ m v₀²
Em₀ = Em_{f}
mgh = ½ m 4gR(1 + μ)
h = ½ 4R (1+ μ)
h = 2 R (1 +μ)