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makvit [3.9K]
2 years ago
10

In the vertical jump, an Kobe Bryant starts from a crouch and jumps upward to reach as high as possible. Even the best athletes

spend little more than 1.00 s in the air (their "hang time"). Treat Kobe as a particle and let ymax be his maximum height above the floor. Note: this isn't the entire story since Kobe can twist and curl up in the air, but then we can no longer treat him as a particle.
To explain why he seems to hang in the air, calculate the ratio of the time he is above ymax/2 moving up to the time it takes him to go from the floor to that height. You may ignore air resistance.
Physics
1 answer:
Dafna1 [17]2 years ago
3 0

Answer:

the athlete spends 2.4 times more time at the upper part of his way than in the lower one.

Explanation:

Let’s find the velocity V1 of an athlete to reach half of the maximum height equation

V1 = v20 -2gh = v20 -2g(ymax)/2

Here, Vo is the initial velocity of athlete, v1 is the velocity of athlete at half the maximum height, g is the acceleration due to gravity, h=ymax /2 is half of the maximum height.

We can fund the maximum height that athlete can reach from the law of conservation of energy

KE = PE

1/2M v20 = mg ymax

ymax = v20 /2g

Then, substituting ymax into the first equation we get

V21 = v20 – v20/2 = v20/2

V1 = V0/∫2, we can find the time that the athlete needs to reach the maximum height (ymax) from the kinematic equation

V = V0 – gt

Here, V is the final velocity of an athlete at the maximum height; V0 is the initial velocity of an athlete

Since, V=0ms-1, we get t=V0/g

Similarly, we can find the time t1 that an athlete needs to reach maximum height from the Ymax/2:

T1 = V1/g =V0/g∫2

So, it is obvious that the time to reach Ymax from Ymax/2 is nothing more than the difference between t and t1:

t-t1 =V0/g(1-1/∫2)

finally, we can calculate the ratio of the time he is above Ymax/2 to the time it takes him to go from floor to that height.

T1/t-t1 =V0/g∫2V0 ×g∫2/∫2-1 =2.4

Answer; the athlete spends 2.4 times more time at the upper part of his way than in the lower one.

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The gold foil experiment led to the conclusion that each atom in the foil was composed mostly of empty space because most alpha
katovenus [111]

Answer:

(1) passed through the foil

Explanation:

Ernest Rutherford conducted an experiment using an alpha particle emitter projected towards a gold foil and the gold foil was surrounded by a fluorescent screen which glows upon being struck by an alpha particle.

  • When the experiment was conducted he found that most of the alpha particles went away without any deflection (due to the empty space) glowing the fluorescent screen right at the point of from where they were emitted.
  • While a few were deflected at reflex angle because they were directed towards the center of the nucleus having the net effective charge as positive.
  • And some were acutely deflected due to the field effect of the positive charge of the proton inside the nucleus. All these  conclusions were made based upon the spot of glow on the fluorescent screen.

5 0
2 years ago
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A child is sliding a toy block (with mass = m) down a ramp. The coefficient of static friction between the block and the ramp is
tiny-mole [99]

Answer:

F=mg(sin(\theta )-0.25 cos(\theta ))

Explanation:

The free body diagram of the block on the slide is shown in the below figure

Since the block is in equilibrium we apply equations of statics to compute the necessary unknown forces

N is the reaction force between the block and the slide

For equilibrium along x-axis we have

\sum F_{x}=0\\\\mgsin(\theta )-\mu N-F=0\\\therefore F=mgsin(\theta)-\mu N......(\alpha )\\Similarly\\\sum F_{y}=0\\\\N-mgcos(\theta )=0\\\therefore N=mgcos(\theta ).......(\beta )\\\\

Using value of N from equation β in α we get value of force as

F=mg(sin(\theta )-\mu cos(\theta ))

Applying values we get

F=mg(sin(\theta )-0.25 cos(\theta ))

8 0
1 year ago
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On an amusement park ride, passengers are seated in a horizontal circle of radius 7.5 m. The seats begin from rest and are unifo
timofeeve [1]

Answer:

a = 0.5 m/s²

Explanation:

Applying the definition of angular acceleration, as the rate of change of the angular acceleration, and as the seats begin from rest, we can get the value of the angular acceleration, as follows:

ωf = ω₀ + α*t

⇒ ωf = α*t ⇒ α = \frac{wf}{t} = \frac{1.4 rad/s}{21 s} = 0.067 rad/s2

The angular velocity, and the linear speed, are related by the following expression:

v = ω*r

Applying the definition of linear acceleration (tangential acceleration in this case) and angular acceleration, we can find a similar relationship between the tangential and angular acceleration, as follows:

a = α*r⇒ a = 0.067 rad/sec²*7.5 m = 0.5 m/s²

3 0
2 years ago
A very long line of charge with charge per unit length +8.00 μC/m is on the x-axis and its midpoint is at x = 0. A second very l
artcher [175]

Answer:

at y=6.29 cm the charge of the two distribution will be equal.

Explanation:

Given:

linear charge density on the x-axis, \lambda_1=8\times 10^{-6}\ C

linear charge density of the other charge distribution, \lambda_2=-6\times 10^{-6}\ C

Since both the linear charges are parallel and aligned by their centers hence we get the symmetric point along the y-axis where the electric fields will be equal.

Let the neural point be at x meters from the x-axis then the distance of that point from the y-axis will be (0.11-x) meters.

<u>we know, the electric field due to linear charge is given as:</u>

E=\frac{\lambda}{2\pi.r.\epsilon_0}

where:

\lambda= linear charge density

r = radial distance from the center of wire

\epsilon_0= permittivity of free space

Therefore,

E_1=E_2

\frac{\lambda_1}{2\pi.x.\epsilon_0}=\frac{\lambda_2}{2\pi.(0.11-x).\epsilon_0}

\frac{\lambda_1}{x} =\frac{\lambda_2}{0.11-x}

\frac{8\times 10^{-6}}{x} =\frac{6\times 10^{-6}}{0.11-x}

x=0.0629\ m

∴at y=6.29 cm the charge of the two distribution will be equal.

9 0
1 year ago
How many turns should a 10-cm long ideal solenoid have if it is to generate a 1.5-mT magnetic field when 1.0 A of current runs t
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Answer:

N=119.34 turns

Explanation:

The magnetic field of a solenoid is calculated using the formula:

B= µo*\frac{I*N}{L} Equation 1

Where:

B: magnetic field in Teslas (T)

µo: free space permeability in T*m/A

I= Intensity of the current flowing through the conductor in ampere (A)

N= number of turns

L= solenoid length in meters (m)

Data of the problem:

L=10cm=10*10^{-2}, B= 1.5mT=1.5*10^{-3} T  ,I=1A  

µo=4\pi *10^{-7} \frac{T*m}{A}

We cleared N of the equation (1):

N=B*L/ µo*I

N= (1.5*10^{-3} *10*10^{-2} )/(4\pi *10^{-7} *1

N=0.1193*10^{3}

Answer

N=119.34 turns

3 0
2 years ago
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