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Lera25 [3.4K]
2 years ago
10

Rama's weight is 40kg. She is carrying a load of 20 kg up to a height of 20 m . What work does she do?​

Physics
1 answer:
Sliva [168]2 years ago
7 0

Answer:

\huge\star{\underline{\mathtt{\blue{Answer}}}}\huge\star...

<h2>PE=<em>work done</em></h2><h2><em>m</em><em>gh</em><em>=</em><em>2</em><em>0</em><em>×</em><em>1</em><em>0</em><em>×</em><em>2</em><em>0</em><em>.</em><em>.</em></h2>

\huge\boxed{\fcolorbox{white}{blue}{mgh=4000}}

.

<em>I </em><em>hope</em><em> </em><em>this</em><em> </em><em>helps</em><em> </em><em>you</em><em>.</em><em>.</em><em>.</em><em>.</em><em>.</em><em>.</em>

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A circular loop of wire with a radius of 12.0 cm and oriented in the horizontal xy-plane is located in a region of uniform magne
Ulleksa [173]

(a) 34 V

The average emf induced in the loop is given by Faraday-Newmann-Lenz law:

\epsilon = -\frac{\Delta \Phi_B}{\Delta t} (1)

where

\Delta \Phi_B is the variation of magnetic flux through the coil

\Delta t = 2.0 ms = 0.002 s is the time interval

We need to find the magnetic flux before and after. The magnetic flux is given by:

\Phi_B = BA

where

B is the magnetic field intensity

A is the area of the coil

The radius of the coil is r = 12.0 cm = 0.12 m, so its area is

A=\pi r^2 = \pi (0.12 m)^2 = 0.045 m^2

At the beginning, the magnetic field is

B_i = 1.5 T

so the flux is

\Phi_i = B_i A = (1.5 T)(0.045 m^2)=0.068 Wb

while after the removal of the coil, the magnetic field is zero, so the flux is also zero:

\Phi_f = 0

so the variation of magnetic flux is

\Delta \Phi = 0-0.068 Wb=-0.068 Wb

And substituting into (1) we find the average emf in the coil

\epsilon=-\frac{-0.068 Wb}{0.002 s}=34 V

(b) Counterclockwise

In order to understand the direction of the induced current, we have to keep in mind the negative sign in Lenz's law (1), which tells that the direction of the induced current must be such that the magnetic field produced by this current opposes the variation of magnetic flux in the coil.

In this situation, the magnetic flux through the coil is decreasing, since the coil is removed from the field. So, the induced current must be such that it produces a magnetic field whose direction is the same as the direction of the external magnetic field, which is upward along the positive z-direction.

Looking down from above and using the right-hand rule on the loop (thumb: direction of the current, other fingers wrapped: direction of magnetic field), we see that in order to produce at the center of the coil a magnetic field which is along positive z-direction, the induced current must be counterclockwise.

4 0
2 years ago
An archer tests various arrowheads by shooting arrows at a pumpkin that is suspended from a tree branch by a rope, as shown to t
erik [133]

Answer:

Bounce 1 ,  pass 3,   emb2

Explanation:

(By the way I am also doing that question on College board physics page) For the Bounce arrow, since it bumps into the object and goes back, it means now it has a negative momentum, which means a larger momentum is given to the object. P=mv, so the velocity is larger for the object, and larger velocity means a larger kinetic energy which would result in a larger change in the potential energy. Since K=0.5mv^2=U=mgh, a larger potential energy would have a larger change in height which means it has a larger angle θ with the vertical line. Comparing with the "pass arrow" and the "Embedded arrow", the embedded arrow gives the object a larger momentum, Pi=Pf (mv=(M+m)V), it gives all its original momentum to the two objects right now. (Arrow and the pumpkin), it would have a larger velocity. However for the pass arrow, it only gives partial of its original momentum and keeps some of them for the arrow to move, which means the pumpkin has less momentum, means less velocity, and less kinetic energy transferred into the potential energy, and means less change in height, less θangle.  So it is  Bounce1, pass3, emb2.  

6 0
2 years ago
Identical satellites X and Y of mass m are in circular orbits around a planet of mass M. The radius of the planet is R. Satellit
GrogVix [38]

Answer:

1) C

2) E

Explanation:

3 0
2 years ago
A container of volume 0.6 m^3 contains 5.3 mol of argon gas at 24°C. Assuming argon behaves as an ideal gas, find the total inte
Vitek1552 [10]

Answer:

the internal energy of the gas is 433089.52 J

Explanation:

let n be the number of moles, R be the gas constant and T be the temperature in Kelvins.

the internal energy of an ideal gas is given by:

Ein = 3/2×n×R×T

     = 3/2×(5.3)×(8.31451)×(24 + 273)

     = 433089.52 J

Therefore, the internal energy of this gas is 433089.52 J.

5 0
2 years ago
Luke investigated the heating of water
Natali5045456 [20]
Amazingly awesome !
Go Luke !
See Luke investigate !
Water, water, water.
Heat, heat, heat.
Luke rocks !
He probably learned something.
3 0
2 years ago
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