The acceleration is the change of speed/velocity over time. Thus to calculate this you do (V1-V2)/T or (11.2-9.6)/4 or 0.4 m/s^2
Answer:

Explanation:
Apply Faraday's Newmann Lenz law to determine the induced emf in the loop:

where:
variation of the magnetic flux
is the variation of time
#The magnetic flux through the coil is expressed as:

Where:
N- number of circular loops
A-is the Area of each loop(
)
B-is the magnetic strength of the field.
- is the angle between the direction of the magnetic field and the normal to the area of the coil.

=0.0250T/s is given as rate at which the magnetic field increases.
#Substitute in the emf equation:

Hence, the induced emf is 
Answer:
Honda won by 0.14 s
Explanation:
We are given that
Distance =S=200 m
Initial velocity of Honda=u=0m/s
Initial velocity of Porsche=u'=0m/s
Acceleration of Honda=
Acceleration of Porsche's=
Time taken by Honda to start=1 s

Substitute the values




Time taken by Honda=11.55 s
Now, time taken by Porsche



Total time taken by Porsche=10.69+1=11.69 s
Because it start 1 s late
Time taken by Honda is less than Porsche .Therefore, Honda won and
Time =11.69-11.55=0.14 s
Honda won by 0.14 s
Answer:
-6.6 km/h
Explanation:
In 7hr plane travelled 2020km;
For the first 4hr the average speed was 310km/h;
d=st, s=d/t;
Distance covered in first 4h is d = 310km/h×4h = 1240km;
See the image attached for further solution
A sound wave. Because in a vacuum there is no medium in a vacuum. And the only wave that requires a medium to travel through is a sound wave.