Answer:
A: 4 times as much
B: 200 N/m
C: 5000 N
D: 84,8 J
Explanation:
A.
In the first question, we have to caculate the constant of the spring with this equation:

Getting the k:
![k=\frac{m*g}{x} =\frac{0,2[kg]*9,81[\frac{m}{s^{2} } ]}{0,05[m]} =39,24[\frac{N}{m}]](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=k%3D%5Cfrac%7Bm%2Ag%7D%7Bx%7D%20%3D%5Cfrac%7B0%2C2%5Bkg%5D%2A9%2C81%5B%5Cfrac%7Bm%7D%7Bs%5E%7B2%7D%20%7D%20%5D%7D%7B0%2C05%5Bm%5D%7D%20%3D39%2C24%5B%5Cfrac%7BN%7D%7Bm%7D%5D)
Then we can calculate how much the spring stretch whith the another mass of 0,2kg:
![x=\frac{m*g}{k} =\frac{0,4[kg]*9,81[\frac{m}{s^{2} } ]}{39,24[\frac{N}{m}]} =0,1[m]\\](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=x%3D%5Cfrac%7Bm%2Ag%7D%7Bk%7D%20%3D%5Cfrac%7B0%2C4%5Bkg%5D%2A9%2C81%5B%5Cfrac%7Bm%7D%7Bs%5E%7B2%7D%20%7D%20%5D%7D%7B39%2C24%5B%5Cfrac%7BN%7D%7Bm%7D%5D%7D%20%3D0%2C1%5Bm%5D%5C%5C)
The energy of a spring:

For the first case:
![E=\frac{1}{2} *39,24[\frac{N}{m}]*(0,05[m])^{2} =0,049 [J]](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=E%3D%5Cfrac%7B1%7D%7B2%7D%20%2A39%2C24%5B%5Cfrac%7BN%7D%7Bm%7D%5D%2A%280%2C05%5Bm%5D%29%5E%7B2%7D%20%3D0%2C049%20%5BJ%5D)
For the second case:
![E=\frac{1}{2} *39,24[\frac{N}{m}]*(0,1[m])^{2} =0,0196 [J]](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=E%3D%5Cfrac%7B1%7D%7B2%7D%20%2A39%2C24%5B%5Cfrac%7BN%7D%7Bm%7D%5D%2A%280%2C1%5Bm%5D%29%5E%7B2%7D%20%3D0%2C0196%20%5BJ%5D)
If you take the relation E2/E1 = 4.
B.
We have the next facts:
x=0,005 m
E = 0,0025 J
Using the energy equation for a spring:
⇒![k=\frac{E*2}{x^{2} } =\frac{0,0025[J]*2}{(0,005[m])^{2} } =200[\frac{N}{m} ]](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=k%3D%5Cfrac%7BE%2A2%7D%7Bx%5E%7B2%7D%20%7D%20%3D%5Cfrac%7B0%2C0025%5BJ%5D%2A2%7D%7B%280%2C005%5Bm%5D%29%5E%7B2%7D%20%7D%20%3D200%5B%5Cfrac%7BN%7D%7Bm%7D%20%5D)
C.
The potential energy of the diver will be equal to the kinetic energy in the moment befover hitting the watter.
![E=W*h=500[N]*10[m]=5000[J]](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=E%3DW%2Ah%3D500%5BN%5D%2A10%5Bm%5D%3D5000%5BJ%5D)
Watch out the units in this case, the 500 N reffer to the weighs of the diver almost relative to the earth, thats equal to m*g.
D.
The work is equal to the force acting in the direction of the motion. so we have to do the diference beetwen angles to obtain the effective angle where the force is acting: 47-15=32 degree.
The force acting in the direction of the ramp will be the projection of the force in the ramp, equal to F*cos(32). The work will be:
W=F*d=F*cos(32)*d=10N*cos(32)*10m=84,8J
First, let's determine the gravitational force of the Earth exerted on you. Suppose your weight is about 60 kg.
F = Gm₁m₂/d²
where
m₁ = 5.972×10²⁴ kg (mass of earth)
m₂ = 60 kg
d = 6,371,000 m (radius of Earth)
G = 6.67408 × 10⁻¹¹ m³ kg⁻¹ s⁻²
F = ( 6.67408 × 10⁻¹¹ m³ kg⁻¹ s⁻²)(60 kg)(5.972×10²⁴ kg)/(6,371,000 m )²
F = 589.18 N
Next, we find the gravitational force exerted by the Sun by replacing,
m₁ = 1.989 × 10³⁰<span> kg
Distance between centers of sun and earth = 149.6</span>×10⁹ m
Thus,
d = 149.6×10⁹ m - 6,371,000 m = 1.496×10¹¹ m
Thus,
F = ( 6.67408 × 10⁻¹¹ m³ kg⁻¹ s⁻²)(60 kg)(1.989 × 10³⁰ kg)/(1.496×10¹¹ m)²
F = 0.356 N
Ratio = 0.356 N/589.18 N
<em>Ratio = 6.04</em>
Answer:
A) vertically upward
Explanation:
Since the tyre is rotating with uniform angular speed and moving with constant linear speed
So as soon as a small stone is stuck into the groove of the tyre the speed of the stone is same as that of the tyre
so now we can say that stone will start revolving with the tyre of the car at constant angular speed and moving with uniform speed also
so here just after that the tangential acceleration of the stone must be zero while radial acceleration must be towards the center of the tyre given as

so we will have direction of net acceleration is towards its center so correct answer will be
A) vertically upward
Answer:
Explanation:
Mutual inductance is equal to magnetic flux induced in the secondary coli due to unit current in the primary coil .
magnetic field in a torroid B = μ₀ n I , n is number of turns per unit length and I is current .
B = 4π x 10⁻⁷ x (1000 / 2π x .16 )x 1 ( current = 1 A)
flux in the secondary coil
= B x area of face of coil x no of turns of secondary
= 4π x 10⁻⁷ x (1000 /2π x .16 ) .25 x 10⁻⁴ x 750
= 2 x 1000 x .25 x( 750 /.16) x 10⁻¹¹
2343.75 x 10⁻⁸
= 23.43 x 0⁻⁶ H.
.