Answer:
15.7 m/s
Explanation:
The motion of the cannonball is a accelerated motion with constant acceleration g = 9.8 m/s^2 towards the ground (gravitational acceleration). Therefore, the velocity of the ball at time t is given by:
where
u = 0 is the initial velocity
g = 9.8 m/s^2 is the acceleration
t is the time
If we substitute t=1.6 s into the equation, we find the final velocity of the cannonball:
Answer:
r = 4.44 m
Explanation:
For this exercise we use the Archimedes principle, which states that the buoyant force is equal to the weight of the dislodged fluid
B = ρ g V
Now let's use Newton's equilibrium relationship
B - W = 0
B = W
The weight of the system is the weight of the man and his accessories (W₁) plus the material weight of the ball (W)
σ = W / A
W = σ A
The area of a sphere is
A = 4π r²
W = W₁ + σ 4π r²
The volume of a sphere is
V = 4/3 π r³
Let's replace
ρ g 4/3 π r³ = W₁ + σ 4π r²
If we use the ideal gas equation
P V = n RT
P = ρ RT
ρ = P / RT
P / RT g 4/3 π r³ - σ 4 π r² = W₁
r² 4π (P/3RT r - σ) = W₁
Let's replace the values
r² 4π (1.01 10⁵ / (3 8.314 (70 + 273)) r - 0.060) = 13000
r² (11.81 r -0.060) = 13000 / 4pi
r² (11.81 r - 0.060) = 1034.51
As the independent term is very small we can despise it, to find the solution
r = 4.44 m
Answer:
Explanation:
The specific heat of gold is 129 J/kgC
It's melting point is 1336 K
It's Heat of fusion is 63000 J/kg
Assuming that the mixture will be solid, the thermal energy to solidify the gold has to be less than that needed to raise the solid gold to the melting point. So,
The first is E1 = 63000 J/kg x 1.5 = 94500 J
the second is E2 = 129 J/kgC x 2 kg x (1336–1000)K = 86688 J
Therefore, all solid is not correct. You will have a mixture of solid and liquid.
For more detail, the difference between E1 and E2 is 7812 J, and that will melt
7812/63000 = 0.124 kg of the solid gold
This can be answered using trigonometric analysis. This sloped path that is 150 m long is the hypotenuse of the triangle. The adjacent angle would then be 65 degrees. Given these:
sin 65 = h / 150
Where: h = vertical displacement = 150 (sin 65)
h = 135.95 meters
Answer:
a) 
b) 
c) Compressing is easier
Explanation:
Given:
Expression of force:
where:
when the spring is stretched
when the spring is compressed
hence,
a)
From the work energy equivalence the work done is equal to the spring potential energy:
here the spring is stretched so, 
Now,
The spring constant at this instant:
Now work done:
b)
When compressing the spring by 0.05 m
we have, 
<u>The spring constant at this instant:</u>
Now work done:
c)
Since the work done in case of stretching the spring is greater in magnitude than the work done in compressing the spring through the same deflection. So, the compression of the spring is easier than its stretching.
