We actually don't need to know how far he/she is standing from the net, as we know that the ball reaches its maximum height (vertex) at the net. At the vertex, it's vertical velocity is 0, since it has stopped moving up and is about to come back down, and its displacement is 0.33m. So we use v² = u² + 2as (neat trick I discovered just then for typing the squared sign: hold down alt and type 0178 on ur numpad wtih numlock on!!!) ANYWAY....... We apply v² = u² + 2as in the y direction only. Ignore x direction.
IN Y DIRECTION: v² = u² + 2as 0 = u² - 2gh u = √(2gh) (Sub in values at the very end)
So that will be the velocity in the y direction only. But we're given the angle at which the ball is hit (3° to the horizontal). So to find the velocity (sum of the velocity in x and y direction on impact) we can use: sin 3° = opposite/hypotenuse = (velocity in y direction only) / (velocity) So rearranging, velocity = (velocity in y direction only) / sin 3° = √(2gh)/sin 3° = (√(2 x 9.8 x 0.33)) / sin 3° = 49 m/s at 3° to the horizontal (2 sig figs)
Answer:
a)W=8.333lbf.ft
b)W=0.0107 Btu.
Explanation:
<u>Complete question</u>
The force F required to compress a spring a distance x is given by F– F0 = kx where k is the spring constant and F0 is the preload. Determine the work required to compress a spring whose spring constant is k= 200 lbf/in a distance of one inch starting from its free length where F0 = 0 lbf. Express your answer in both lbf-ft and Btu.
Solution
Preload = F₀=0 lbf
Spring constant k= 200 lbf/in
Initial length of spring x₁=0
Final length of spring x₂= 1 in
At any point, the force during deflection of a spring is given by;
F= F₀× kx where F₀ initial force, k is spring constant and x is the deflection from original point of the spring.

Change to lbf.ft by dividing the value by 12 because 1ft=12 in
100/12 = 8.333 lbf.ft
work required to compress the spring, W=8.333lbf.ft
The work required to compress the spring in Btu will be;
1 Btu= 778 lbf.ft
?= 8.333 lbf.ft----------------cross multiply
(8.333*1)/ 778 =0.0107 Btu.
Answer:
-40 kJ
80 kJ
Explanation:
Work is equal to the area under the pressure vs volume graph.
W = ∫ᵥ₁ᵛ² P dV
2.27) Pressure and volume are linearly related. When we graph P vs V, the area under the line is a trapezoid. So the work is:
W = ½ (P₁ + P₂) (V₂ − V₁)
W = ½ (100 kPa + 300 kPa) (0.1 m³ − 0.3 m³)
W = -40 kJ
2.29) Pressure and volume are inversely proportional:
pV = k
The initial pressure and volume are 500 kPa and 0.1 m³. So the constant is:
(500) (0.1) = k
k = 50
The final pressure is 100 kPa. So the final volume is:
(100) V = 50
V = 0.5
The work is therefore:
W = ∫ᵥ₁ᵛ² P dV
W = ∫₀₁⁰⁵ (50/V) dV
W = 50 ln(V) |₀₁⁰⁵
W = 50 (ln 0.5 − ln 0.1)
W ≈ 80 kJ
Answer:
The magnitude of the torque on the loop due to the magnetic field is
.
Explanation:
Given that,
Diameter = 10 cm
Current = 0.20 A
Magnetic field = 0.30 T
Unit vector
We need to calculate the torque on the loop
Using formula of torque

Where, N = number of turns
A = area
I = current
B = magnetic field
Put the value into the formula


Hence, The magnitude of the torque on the loop due to the magnetic field is
.