The braking force is -400 N
Explanation:
We can solve this problem by using the impulse theorem, which states that the impulse applied on the ferry (the product of force and time) is equal to its change in momentum:
where in this problem, we have:
F is the force applied by the brakes
is the time interval
m = 13,000 kg is the mass of the ferry
u = 2.0 m/s is the initial velocity
v = 0 is the final velocity
And solving for F, we find the force applied by the brakes:
where the negative sign indicates that the direction is backward.
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Answer: 80m
Explanation:
Distance of balloon to the ground is 3150m
Let the distance of Menin's pocket to the ground be x
Let the distance between Menin's pocket to the balloon be y
Hence, x=3150-y------1
Using the equation of motion,
V^2= U^s + 2gs--------2
U= initial speed is 0m/s
g is replaced with a since the acceleration is under gravity (g) and not straight line (a), hence g is taken as 10m/s
40m/s is contant since U (the coin is at rest is 0) hence V =40m/s
Slotting our values into equation 2
40^2= 0^2 + 2 * 10* (3150-y)
1600 = 0 + 63000 - 20y
1600 - 63000 = - 20y
-61400 = - 20y minus cancel out minus on both sides of the equation
61400 = 20y
Hence y = 61400/20
3070m
Hence, recall equation 1
x = 3150 - 3070
80m
I hope this solve the problem.
Answer:
a). same as
b). less than
Explanation:
a). When a bicycle is moving, the linear speed at the top of the rear wheel is same as the linear speed at the top of the front wheel. Since the clown's bicycle is a rigid body, both the wheels that is the front wheel and the rear wheel will move with the same linear speed.
b). Since we know that angular speed varies inversely to the radius of the wheel.
That is ω = 1 / r
Since the rear wheel has twice the radius of that of the front wheel, therefore real wheel will have less angular speed than the front wheel.
Therefore, the angular speed of the rear wheel is less than the angular speed of the front wheel.
Answer:
Explanation:
Capacitance C is given by
A= area of capacitor cross section
d= distance
therefore,
A_1= πR^2
d_1= d
A_= π(2R)^2
d_2 = 2d
threfore
and
also we know that E= V/d
⇒
⇒
= A_1/A_2= 
=4
therefore,
Answer:
Number of electrons, 
Explanation:
Given that,
Charge on the fly, 
Let n is the number of electrons lose to the surface it is walking across. It is case of quantization of electric charge. It is given by :
n = 387500000 electrons
or
So, there are 
electrons. Hence, this is the required solution.
