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sweet [91]
2 years ago
12

When water flows from a faucet, the water molecules tend to join together and form a stream. Which of the four fundamental force

s most likely accounts for this, and why?
Physics
2 answers:
gulaghasi [49]2 years ago
7 0

Sample Response:  The water molecules are attracted to each other because of the electromagnetic force.

Yuki888 [10]2 years ago
3 0
The fundamental force responsible for the cohesion of the water molecules leaving the faucet is the electromagnetic force.
Electromagnetic forces act on particles that are electrically charged. Water molecules are polar, which means that they have a positively charged end and a negatively charged end. This polarity arises from the fact that oxygen pulls the electrons in the molecule towards itself and attains a negative charge, while the hydrogen atoms in the molecules are left with a positive charge.
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Evaporation of sweat requires energy and thus take excess heat away from the body. Some of the water that you drink may eventual
kotegsom [21]

Answer:

The amount of heat required is H_t =  1.37 *10^{6} \ J

Explanation:

From the question we are told that

The mass of water is m_w  =  20 \ ounce = 20 * 28.3495 = 5.7 *10^2 g

The temperature of the water before drinking is T_w  =  3.8 ^oC

The temperature of the body is T_b  =  36.6^oC

Generally the amount of heat required to move the water from its former temperature to the body temperature is

H=  m_w  *  c_w * \Delta T

Here c_w is the specific heat of water with value c_w = 4.18 J/g^oC

So

H=   5.7 *10^2 * 4.18 * (36.6 - 3.8)

=> H= 7.8 *10^{4} \  J

Generally the no of mole of sweat present mass of water is

n = \frac{m_w}{Z_s}

Here Z_w is the molar mass of sweat with value

Z_w =  18.015 g/mol

=> n = \frac{5.7 *10^2}{18.015}

=> n = 31.6 \  moles

Generally the heat required to vaporize the number of moles of the sweat is mathematically represented as

H_v  =  n  *  L_v

Here L_v is the latent heat of vaporization with value L_v  = 7 *10^{3} J/mol

=> H_v  =  31.6 * 7 *10^{3}

=> H_v  = 1.29 *10^{6} \  J

Generally the overall amount of heat energy required is

H_t =  H +  H_v

=> H_t =  7.8 *10^{4} +  1.29 *10^{6}

=> H_t =  1.37 *10^{6} \ J

4 0
2 years ago
The U.S. Department of Energy had plans for a 1500-kg automobile to be powered completely by the rotational kinetic energy of a
navik [9.2K]

Answer:

230

Explanation:

\omega = Rotational speed = 3600 rad/s

I = Moment of inertia = 6 kgm²

m = Mass of flywheel = 1500 kg

v = Velocity = 15 m/s

The kinetic energy of flywheel is given by

K=\dfrac{1}{2}I\omega^2\\\Rightarrow K=\dfrac{1}{2}6\times 3600^2\\\Rightarrow K=38880000\ J

Energy used in one acceleration

K=\dfrac{1}{2}mv^2\\\Rightarrow K=\dfrac{1}{2}1500\times 15^2\\\Rightarrow K=168750\ J

Number of accelerations would be given by

n=\dfrac{38880000}{168750}\\\Rightarrow n=230.4

So the number of complete accelerations is 230

8 0
2 years ago
Two students grab a slinky and start waving it up and down. A third student counts the number of waves that pass by every second
deff fn [24]

Velocity = frequency * wavelength

v = fλ, Just pick any points on the graph for frequency f and corresponding λ. Taking the first red point at the top. λ = 6m, f = 1 Hz, v = 6 * 1, v = 6 m/s  


V = 6 M/S

4 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Assuming the starting height is 0.0 m, calculate the potential energy of the cart after it has been elevated to a height of 0.5
Bogdan [553]
The potential energy is most often referred to as the "energy at rest" and is dependent on the elevation of an object. This can be calculated through the equation,

     E = mgh

where E is the potential energy, m is the mass, g is the acceleration due to gravity, and h is the height. In this item, we are not given with the mass of the cart so we assume it to be m. The force is therefore,

   E = m(9.8 m/s²)(0.5 m) = 4.9m

Hence, the potential energy is equal to 4.9m.
8 0
2 years ago
A solid metal sphere of diameter D is spinning in a gravity-free region of space with an angular velocity of ωi. The sphere is s
Leona [35]

Answer:

0.6

Explanation:

The volume of a sphere = \frac{4}{3} \pi (\frac{D}{2})^3

Therefore \pi * r^2 * (\frac{D}{2} ) = \frac{4}{3} \pi (\frac{D}{2})^3

r of the disc = 1.15(\frac{ D}{2} )

Using conservation of angular momentum;

The M_i of the sphere = \frac{2}{5} m \frac{D}{2}^2

M_i of the disc = m*\frac{   \frac{1.15*D}{2}^2 }{2}

\frac{wd}{ws} = \frac{\frac{2}{5}m * \frac{D}{2}^2}{  m * \frac{(\frac{`.`5*D}{2})^2 }{2} }

= 0.6

5 0
2 years ago
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