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aivan3 [116]
2 years ago
11

Every morning Ann walks her dog through the park, shown as a green square on the diagram below. They start at point 1, walk one

block up the street, take a turn at the corner labeled 2, and walk diagonally through the park to point 3. To return home, they walk two blocks down the street and turn right at the corner labeled 4. Draw the path 1→2→3→4→1 taken by Ann as she walks her dog. Represent each segment of Anna's walk with a vector.
Physics
1 answer:
bonufazy [111]2 years ago
7 0
What diagram. Edit answer and add diagram
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1. Two identical bowling balls of mass M and radius R roll side by side at speed v0 along a flat surface. Ball 1 encounters a ra
UNO [17]

Answer:

1/2

Explanation:

We need to make a couple of considerations but basically the problem is solved through the conservation of energy.  

I attached a diagram for the two surfaces and begin to make the necessary considerations.

Rough Surface,

We know that force is equal to,

F_r = mgsin\theta

F_r = \mu N

F_r = \mu mg cos\theta

Matching the two equation we have,

\mu N = \mu mg cos\theta

\mu = tan\theta

Applying energy conservation,

\frac{1}{2}mv^2_0+\frac{1}{2}I_w^2 = F_r*d+mgh_1

\frac{1}{2}mv^2_0+\frac{2}{5}mR^2\frac{V_0^2}{R^2} = F_r*d+mgh_1

\frac{1}{2}mv^2_0+\frac{mv_0^2}{5} = mgsin\theta \frac{h_1sin\theta}+mgh_1

\frac{v_0^2}{2}+\frac{v_0^2}{5} = gh_1+gh_1

h_1 = \frac{1}{2g}(\frac{v_0^2}{2}+\frac{v_0^2}{5})

Frictionless surface

\frac{1}{2}mv_0^2+\frac{1}{2}I\omega^2 = mgh_2

\frac{1}{2}m_v^2+\frac{1}{2}\frac{2}{5}mR^2\frac{v_0^2}{R^2} =mgh_2

\frac{v_0^2}{2}+\frac{v_0^2}{5} = gh_2

h_2 = \frac{1}{g}(\frac{V_0^2}{2}+\frac{v_0^2}{5})

Given the description we apply energy conservation taking into account the inertia of a sphere. Then the relation between h_1 and h_2 is given by

\frac{h_1}{h_2} = \frac{\frac{1}{2g}(\frac{v_0^2}{2}+\frac{v_0^2}{5})}{\frac{1}{g}(\frac{V_0^2}{2}+\frac{v_0^2}{5})}

\frac{h_1}{h_2} = \frac{1}{2}

8 0
2 years ago
Table C. The Effects of a Magnet on Electric Current
Degger [83]
Magnet moving left to right
5 0
2 years ago
7. A mother pushes her 9.5 kg baby in her 5kg baby carriage over the grass with a force of 110N @ an angle
jasenka [17]

Weight of the carriage =(m+M)g =142.1\ N

Normal force =Fsin(\theta) + W = 197.1\ N

Frictional force =\mu N=27.59\ N

Acceleration =4.66\ m\ s^{-2}

Explanation:

We have to look into the FBD of the carriage.

Horizontal forces and Vertical forces separately.

To calculate Weight we know that both the mass of the baby and the carriage will be added.

  • So Weight(W) =(m+M)\times g =(9.5+5)\ kg \times 9.8 =142.1\ Newton\ (N)

To calculate normal force we have to look upon the vertical component of forces, as Normal force is acting vertically.We have weight which is a downward force along with F_x, force of 110\ N acting vertically downward.Both are downward and Normal is upward so Normal force =Summation\ of\ both\ forces

  • Normal force (N) = Fsin(\theta)+W=110sin(30) + 142.1 =197.1\ N
  • Frictional force (f) =\mu N=0.14\times 197.1 =27.59\ N

To calculate acceleration we will use Newtons second law.

That is Force is product of mass and acceleration.

We can see in the diagram that F_y=Horizontal and F_x=Vertical component of forces.

So Fnet = Fy(Horizontal) - f(friction) = m\times a

  • Acceleration (a) =\frac{Fcos(\theta)-\mu N}{mass(m)} =\frac{(95.26-27.59)}{14.5}= 4.66\ m\ s{^2 }

So we have the weight of the carriage, normal force,frictional force and acceleration.

3 0
2 years ago
A neutron at rest decays (breaks up) to a proton and an electron. Energy is released in the decay and appears as kinetic energy
SashulF [63]

Answer:

5.444\times 10^{-4}

Explanation:

The momentum of the neutron before and after the decay  is the same since there's no external force.

P_{sys}=const\\\\P=mv\\\\K=0.5mv^2

#The neutron is initially at rest, so after the decay:

P_A+P_B=0\\\\P_A=-P_B

#After decay, the proton has +ve direction  with a velocity v_Awhile the electron moves in a negative direction with a velocity v_B

Therefore:

P_A=m_Av_A, P_B=m_Bv_B\\\\\therefore m_Av_A,=m_Bv_B

Let the energy released during the decay be Q:

Q=K_{tot}=K_A+K_B\\\\Q=K_A+0.5m_Bv_B^2\\\\Q=K_A+0.5m_B(\frac{m_A}{m_B})^2v_A^2\\\\\ But \ K_A=0.5m_Av_A^2\\\\\therefore Q=K_A+\frac{m_A}{m_B}K_A=K_A(1+\frac{m_A}{m_B})\\\\=Q=\frac{m_A+m_B}{m_B}K_A\\\\m_A=1836m_B\\\\\frac{K_A}{Q}=\frac{m_B}{1836m_B+m_B}=\frac{1}{1837}\\\\\frac{K_A}{Q}=5.444\times10^{-4}

Hence,Kp/Ktot is 5.444x10^(-4)

4 1
2 years ago
You are a particle physicist at the Large Hadron Collider who is tasked with designing an apparatus to separate annihilation pro
JulijaS [17]

Find solution in the attachments

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2 years ago
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